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UPSC CAPF (AC) · Solved paper

CAPF AC 2025 — Paper I: General Ability and Intelligence

All 125 questions, textbook-style — tap “Show answer” on any question to reveal the correct option and explanation.

  1. Q1

    Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

    1. 1The National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) was approved by the Union Cabinet, Government of India, in the year 2023.
    2. 2The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India, has launched the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India. Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventssci-tech-news
  2. Q2

    India and Poland have agreed to implement the 'India-Poland Strategic Partnership' in terms of a Five-Year Action Plan. Identify the current Five-Year Action Plan.

    current-eventsinternational-relations-news
  3. Q3

    'Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, 2024' under the category of 'Vigyan Ratna Award' was given to

    current-eventsawards-honours
  4. Q4

    Which among the following statements with regard to Grameen Bharat Mahotsav, 2025 is/are correct?

    1. 1It aims at promoting economic stability and financial security among rural population.
    2. 2It focuses on financial inclusion and supporting sustainable agricultural practices. Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsgovernment-schemes-news
  5. Q5

    The 2024 OPCW (Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons)-The Hague Award has been conferred upon which one of the following organizations?

    current-eventsawards-honours
  6. Q6

    Which among the following States is not a part of the Purvodaya development initiative of the Government of India?

    current-eventsgovernment-schemes-news
  7. Q7

    Which of the following statements with regard to the 'National Manufacturing Mission' is/are correct?

    1. 1It covers small, medium and large industries.
    2. 2It will support cleantech manufacturing.
    3. 3It will facilitate promotion of employment opportunities in labour-intensive sectors. Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsgovernment-schemes-news
  8. Q8

    The Ghatampur Thermal Power Project is located at

    current-eventsplaces-in-news
  9. Q9

    Arrange the following military operations undertaken by India against Pakistan in correct chronological order :

    1. 1Operation Cactus Lily
    2. 2Operation Riddle
    3. 3Operation Meghdoot
    4. 4Operation Safed Sagar Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsdefence-security-news
  10. Q10

    Which of the following statements is/are correct about recently elected Chancellor of Germany Mr. Friedrich Merz?

    1. 1He lost in the first round of voting.
    2. 2His coalition includes Christian Democratic Union and Christian Social Union. Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsinternational-relations-news
  11. Q11

    Which among the following regarding the nature of goods and income elasticity are correctly matched? Nature of Goods Income Elasticity

    1. 1Necessity Between 0 and 1
    2. 2Luxury More than 1
    3. 3Inferior More than 0 Select the answer using the code given below.
    indian-polity-economyeconomy-fundamentals
  12. Q12

    Which of the following statements about the relationship between price elasticity of demand and type of firm is/are correct?

    1. 1Perfectly elastic demand is associated with a competitive firm.
    2. 2Perfectly inelastic demand is associated with a monopolistically competitive firm. Select the answer using the code given below.
    indian-polity-economyeconomy-fundamentals
  13. Q13

    The comparative advantage theory (CAT) is a trade theory that describes the basis of two nations engaging in trade. Which one among the following statements regarding the theory is not correct?

    1. aDavid Ricardo was the author of the CAT.
    2. bThe CAT is explained in the book titled On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation that was first published in 1817.
    3. cAccording to the CAT, the nation which does not have absolute advantage in any goods cannot benefit from trade.
    4. dThe two nations that engage in trade can gain from specializing in the commodity in which they have a comparative advantage.
    indian-polity-economyeconomy-fundamentals
  14. Q14

    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List I (Author):

    1. AJohn M. Keynes;
    2. BPaul Samuelson;
    3. CAmartya Sen;
    4. DAbhijit V. Banerjee and Esther Duflo.

    List II (Book):

    1. 1Poor Economics;
    2. 2The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money;
    3. 3Collective Choice and Social Welfare;
    4. 4Foundations of Economic Analysis. Code :
    indian-polity-economyeconomy-fundamentals
  15. Q15

    'Collaboration for the Intelligent Age' was the theme of a meeting convened in 2025 under the aegis of

    current-eventsinternational-relations-news
  16. Q16

    Consider the following statements about Nandini Sahakar Scheme :

    1. 1This scheme is aimed at assisting women cooperatives to take up business model based activities under the purview of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
    2. 2There is no minimum or maximum limit on financial assistance.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    current-eventsgovernment-schemes-news
  17. Q17

    Which one among the following items of expenditure received the highest allocations in the Union Budget, 2025-26?

    indian-polity-economyfiscal-external
  18. Q18

    Which among the following statements regarding India's services export is/are not correct?

    1. 1India's share in global services export has more than doubled, reaching around 4.3 percent in 2023 from 1.9 percent in 2005.
    2. 2'Travel' and 'Transport' services represent areas where India holds a relatively larger share in global export, at 10.2 percent and 8.5 percent respectively in 2023. Select the answer using the code given below.
    indian-polity-economyfiscal-external
  19. Q19

    Which one among the following is not identified as one of the 'Engines of Development' in the Union Budget, 2025-26?

    indian-polity-economyfiscal-external
  20. Q20

    Which one among the following schemes focuses on developing modern infrastructure and optimizing supply chain from farm to retail in Indian agriculture sector?

    current-eventsgovernment-schemes-news
  21. Q21

    Which one among the following financial institutions reports the monthly Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) for services in India?

    indian-polity-economyeconomy-fundamentals
  22. Q22

    Which one among the following statements is not correct?

    1. aThe Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up in 2010.
    2. bThe National Logistics Policy (NLP) was launched in 2022.
    3. cThe Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was instituted in NABARD during 1995-96.
    4. dThe G20 was formed in 2001 as a forum of Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors.
    indian-polity-economyeconomy-fundamentals
  23. Q23

    The Union Budget for which of the following years announced the issue of Sovereign Green Bonds to reduce the carbon intensity of the economy?

    indian-polity-economyfiscal-external
  24. Q24

    Which one among the following is the estimated fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP of India in the Budget Estimates of 2025-26?

    indian-polity-economyfiscal-external
  25. Q25

    The Code on Wages was notified by the Government of India in the year

    indian-polity-economygovernance-administration
  26. Q26

    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List I (Act of the British Parliament):

    1. AThe Pitt's India Act, 1784;
    2. BThe Charter Act, 1813;
    3. CThe Charter Act, 1833;
    4. DThe Charter Act, 1853.

    List II (Key Provision):

    1. 1Enlargement of the Governor-General's Legislative Council;
    2. 2Discrimination against Indians removed in matters of employment and higher service;
    3. 3Board set up by the Crown to control affairs of India;
    4. 4Termination of monopoly of East India Company over Indian trade. Code :
    history-of-indiaeuropeans-british-expansion
  27. Q27

    Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919:

    1. 1It divided the subjects of administration in two categories-central and provincial.
    2. 2The central subjects were divided into 'reserved' and 'transferred' subjects.
    3. 3Provincial Governments were granted the power to make their own budgets and Heavy taxes.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    history-of-indiaeuropeans-british-expansion
  28. Q28

    From amongst the following, identify the correct option that captures the changes made in Article 74(1) of the Constitution of India through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

    1. aExecutive powers of the Union shall be vested with the President of India.
    2. bThe Prime Minister has the duty to brief the President about decisions of the Council of Ministers.
    3. cThe President shall exercise his/her functions on the advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
    4. dThe President shall have the right to summon or prorogue the Houses of the Parliament.
    indian-polity-economyconstitution-framing
  29. Q29

    Consider the following statements about the powers and duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

    1. 1He audits and reports on all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    2. 2He controls the issue and receipt of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    3. 3He audits and reports on the expenditure of all bodies substantially financed from the Union or State revenues.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    indian-polity-economyconstitutional-statutory-bodies
  30. Q30

    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List I (Name of the Committee):

    1. ABalwantrai Mehta Committee;
    2. BAshok Mehta Committee;
    3. CG. V. K. Rao Committee;
    4. DL. M. Singhvi Committee.

    List II (Key Recommendation):

    1. 1Constitutional status for Panchayati Raj;
    2. 2Creation of post of District Development Commissioner;
    3. 3Creation of Zilla Parishad and Mandal Panchayat;
    4. 4Creation of Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti and Gram Panchayat. Code :
    indian-polity-economylocal-governance
  31. Q31

    Based on the year of their establishment, arrange the following regional organizations in correct chronological order :

    1. 1The Shanghai Cooperation Organization
    2. 2The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
    3. 3The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
    4. 4The Association of Southeast Asian Nations Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsinternational-relations-news
  32. Q32

    The United Nations Carbon Offset Platform is an e-commerce platform to compensate greenhouse gas emissions by purchasing carbon credits. Who among the following can buy these carbon credits?

    1. 1A company
    2. 2An organization
    3. 3A citizen Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsenvironment-news
  33. Q33

    Who among the following was the founder of 'Sikkim Praja Mandal'?

    history-of-indiafreedom-final
  34. Q34

    Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    1. aThe Supreme Court of India is a Court of Record.
    2. bHigh Courts in India are Courts of Record.
    3. cSubordinate Courts in India are Courts of Record.
    4. dAll Courts in India are not Courts of Record.
    indian-polity-economyjudiciary
  35. Q35

    Consider the following statements about international events :

    1. 1The First Gulf War was related to the Iraq invasion of Kuwait.
    2. 2Mikhail Gorbachev was the President of the Soviet Union at the time of its disintegration.
    3. 3Boris Yeltsin was the first elected President of Russia.

    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    current-eventsinternational-relations-news
  36. Q36

    Consider the following statements :

    1. 1WTO was set up as the successor to GATT.
    2. 2IAEA teams inspect nuclear facilities all over the world.
    3. 3Amnesty International is an NGO.

    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    current-eventsinternational-relations-news
  37. Q37

    Which of the following statements about the Bhoodan Movement are correct?

    1. 1It was aimed at attaining a non-violent society.
    2. 2It included schemes such as 'Sampattidan' and 'Shramdan'.
    3. 3It began in a village in Andhra Pradesh in 1951. Select the answer using the code given below.
    history-of-indiafreedom-final
  38. Q38

    Which one among the following statements about the Department of Defence (DoD) is not correct?

    1. aIt is headed by the Defence Secretary.
    2. bIt deals with defence policy and planning.
    3. cIt facilitates the restructuring of military commands for optimal utilization of resources.
    4. dIt is responsible for defence cooperation with foreign countries.
    indian-polity-economysecurity-human-rights
  39. Q39

    Which Hindustani classical Raag is sung as an invitation to rain?

    history-of-indiaart-culture
  40. Q40

    Who among the following classical poets is the author of the book Kiratarjuniyam?

    history-of-indiaart-culture
  41. Q41

    Which one of the following ancient towns is known for the evidence of a ploughed field from its early Harappan levels, with two sets of furrows at right angles to each other, suggesting two different crops grown together?

    history-of-indiasources-ivc
  42. Q42

    Krishnadevaraya, a king of Vijayanagara, composed a work on statecraft known as Amuktamalyada in

    history-of-indiavijayanagara-mughals-marathas
  43. Q43

    Who among the following travellers reported the use of seed drill on the Karnataka coast which is considered to be the earliest reference of the presence of the device in India?

    history-of-indiaeuropeans-british-expansion
  44. Q44

    Which of the following are the main features of 'Saracenic' architecture?

    1. 1Arch
    2. 2Vault and dome
    3. 3Lintel and beam
    4. 4Application of lime cement Select the answer using the code given below.
    history-of-indiaart-culture
  45. Q45

    With reference to ancient South India, the terms 'Vichitrachitta', 'Chitrakarapuli' and 'Chaityakari' refer to

    history-of-indiaart-culture
  46. Q46

    Which one of the following Harappan sites has yielded evidence of a wash basin in the toilet of a house?

    history-of-indiasources-ivc
  47. Q47

    Who among the following British Commanders suffered defeat in the famous Battle of Chinhat during the 1857 Revolt?

    history-of-indiafreedom-early
  48. Q48

    With reference to the history of Orissa, consider the following statements :

    1. 1Anantavarman Chodaganga consolidated Orissa into a powerful kingdom and was patron of Sanskrit and Telugu literature.
    2. 2Anantavarman Chodaganga built the great temple of the Sun God at Konark in Puri district.
    3. 3Narasimha I effectively checked the external invasion and maintained prosperity in the kingdom. How many statements given above are correct?
    history-of-indiaearly-medieval
  49. Q49

    Consider the following pairs : Literary Work Author

    1. 1Rigarthadipika Madhava Yogi
    2. 2Kataka Venkata Madhava
    3. 3Damayanti-Katha Trivikrama Bhatta
    4. 4Yashastilaka Champu Somadeva How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
    history-of-indiaart-culture
  50. Q50

    Consider the following pairs : King Dynasty

    1. 1Lakshmikarna Pala
    2. 2Bhima I Chalukyas of Gujarat
    3. 3Jayapala Shahiya dynasty
    4. 4Lalitaditya Muktapida Utpala dynasty of Kashmir How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
    history-of-indiaearly-medieval
  51. Q51

    Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The first meeting of the All India Depressed Classes Conference was held at Poona in 1926 under the presidency of M. C. Rajah.
    2. 2The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed at Nagpur in 1928 with Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar as its first elected President.
    3. 3The All India Depressed Classes Congress was founded by Dr. B. S. Munje at a conference in Bombay in 1936.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    history-of-indiafreedom-final
  52. Q52

    With reference to the ancient architectural development in the hills of North Indian States, consider the following statements :

    1. 1The temple 'Garbhagriha' and 'Shikhara' were made in a Rekhaprasada or Latina style.
    2. 2The Pandrethan Temple in Kashmir is built on a plinth in the middle of a tank.
    3. 3The Jageshwar Temple is located in Garhwal region.
    4. 4The Lakshana Devi Mandir shows the influence of the post-Gupta tradition. How many statements given above are correct?
    history-of-indiaart-culture
  53. Q53

    The indentured system in tea gardens of Assam was abolished in

    history-of-indiaeuropeans-british-expansion
  54. Q54

    With reference to the Indo-Roman trade, who among the following referred to the drain of Roman gold into India?

    1. 1Strabo
    2. 2Pliny
    3. 3Ptolemy
    4. 4Dio Chrysostom Select the answer using the code given below.
    history-of-indiamauryan-gupta
  55. Q55

    With reference to the history of India, the 'Katapayadi system', the 'Parahita system' and the 'Drigganita system' are associated with

    history-of-indiaart-culture
  56. Q56

    For any three natural numbers a, b and c, if (bc + 1)/(abc + a + c) = 11/43, then the value of abc is

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  57. Q57

    If n is an integer larger than 1, then what is the least value of the integer n² + n³ + n⁵ ?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  58. Q58

    The unit digit of (3 × 1 + 4 × 2 × 1 + 5 × 3 × 2 × 1 + ... + 20 × 18 × 17 × ⋯ × 2 × 1) is

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  59. Q59

    A point P on the ground is on the same line as the bases and the tips of a pair of trees A and B such that P is on the left of both these trees. The ratio of heights of A and B is 1:3. If the distance between P and A is a metre, then the distance between A and B, in metre, is

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  60. Q60

    Four cylindrical drums, each of radius 1 m, are placed such that each one touches other two drums. A sewer pipe is to be placed through the gap of these drums. What could be the maximum possible radius for this pipe?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  61. Q61

    P and Q are two points on a highway, 300 km apart. Two bikers A and B start at the same time from P towards Q. The speed of B is 12 km/h less than that of A. On reaching point Q, biker A immediately returns towards P. He meets B on the road at a place 60 km away from Q. What is the speed of A?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  62. Q62

    A clock is set right at 8:00 AM in the morning. The minute hand and the hour hand of the clock come together after every 65 minutes. What is the actual time when the clock shows 8:00 PM, approximated to the nearest minutes?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  63. Q63

    A triangle of sides 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm is inscribed in a circle. The ratio of the area of the circle to that of the triangle is approximately

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  64. Q64

    If a/b = 2, b/c = 3, c/d = 4, d/e = 3, e/f = 2 and f/g = 1.5, then what is the value of (a + b + c)/(e − f + g)?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  65. Q65

    Which one of the following years will have identical calendar with the year 2025?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  66. Q66

    Two trains A and B are entering a railway platform from opposite direction. The length of the platform is 300 m. The speed of B is two times the speed of A. The time taken by B to cross the platform is one-third of the time taken by A to cross the platform. If the sum of the lengths of A and B is 500 m, what is the difference in their lengths?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  67. Q67

    The sum of two numbers is 168. If their HCF is 14, how many such pairs of numbers are possible?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  68. Q68

    There are four bulbs A, B, C and D in a room. A glows for 2 minutes, then goes off for 1 minute and the process continues in this manner. Similarly, B glows for 3 minutes and then goes off for 1 minute and the process continues. For C, it is 4 minutes and 1 minute, while for D, it is 5 minutes and 1 minute respectively for glowing and going off. A man enters the room and comes out of it as soon as he completes an hour. What is the maximum number of times that he may face complete darkness in the room?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  69. Q69

    If a²ˣ = b³ʸ = c⁵ᶻ and b = a²c, then which one of the following is true?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  70. Q70

    The value at the tenth place of a three-digit number is twice the value at the unit's place. The value at the hundredth place is 75% of the value at the unit's place. How many such numbers are possible?

    general-mental-abilityquantitative-aptitude
  71. Q71

    Which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. 1The time at 180° longitude is exactly 12 hours from the 0° longitude, irrespective of whether one travels westward or eastward from the Prime Meridian.
    2. 2A person moving eastward on Tuesday will count the day as Wednesday once the International Date Line is crossed. Select the answer using the code given below.
    indian-world-geographygeomorphology
  72. Q72

    Consider the following statements with reference to salt weathering :

    1. 1Salts in rocks expand due to thermal action, hydration and crystallization.
    2. 2Salts like calcium, sodium, magnesium and barium have a tendency to expand.
    3. 3Salt weathering is a typical example of chemical weathering.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    indian-world-geographygeomorphology
  73. Q73

    Which of the following types of mass movements are categorized as rapid movements?

    1. 1Creep
    2. 2Mudflow
    3. 3Solifluction
    4. 4Slump Select the answer using the code given below.
    indian-world-geographygeomorphology
  74. Q74

    Which of the following statements with reference to stratovolcanoes is/are correct?

    1. 1Stratovolcanoes are tall, steep cones built of layers of felsic lava and volcanic ash.
    2. 2They can erupt explosively as felsic lavas from stratovolcanoes hold large amounts of gas under high pressure. Select the answer using the code given below.
    indian-world-geographygeomorphology
  75. Q75

    Which one of the following is the main method by which potholes are created in bedrocks by the flowing stream?

    indian-world-geographygeomorphology
  76. Q76

    Which of the following ocean trenches are not located in the Pacific Ocean?

    1. 1Bonin Trench
    2. 2Cayman Trench
    3. 3Kermadec Trench
    4. 4South Sandwich Trench Select the answer using the code given below.
    indian-world-geographyoceanography
  77. Q77

    Consider the following statements with reference to neap tides :

    1. 1Normally, there is a seven-day interval between two neap tides.
    2. 2At this time, the Sun and the Moon are at right angles to each other.
    3. 3The Moon's attraction is diminished by the counteracting force of the Sun's gravitational pull.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    indian-world-geographyoceanography
  78. Q78

    Consider the following pairs with reference to National Waterways (NW) in India and the associated rivers : NW No. River

    1. 1NW-1 Ganga
    2. 2NW-10 Amba
    3. 3NW-100 Tapi Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    indian-world-geographyindia-drainage
  79. Q79

    Which one of the following has launched the environmental project 'Shaheed-e-Azam Sardar Bhagat Singh Hariawal Lehar'?

    current-eventsenvironment-news
  80. Q80

    Which of the following statements with reference to raster data format is/are correct?

    1. 1It has a simple data structure which is compatible with remote sensing imagery.
    2. 2The relationship between cell size and number of cells is expressed as the resolution of the raster. Select the answer using the code given below.
    general-scienceinformation-technology
  81. Q81

    Which of the following are components of Geographic Information System (GIS)?

    1. 1Data
    2. 2Hardware
    3. 3Software
    4. 4People Select the answer using the code given below.
    general-scienceinformation-technology
  82. Q82

    Which of the following are included in Bharatmala Pariyojana?

    1. 1Road connectivity to border areas
    2. 2Development of coastal roads
    3. 3Connectivity for non-major ports
    4. 4Integration with Sagarmala Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsgovernment-schemes-news
  83. Q83

    Which one among the following institutes was established first?

    current-eventssci-tech-news
  84. Q84

    Which one of the following statements with reference to Jal Jeevan Mission is not correct?

    current-eventsgovernment-schemes-news
  85. Q85

    The cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki are situated on which of the following islands?

    indian-world-geographyworld-physical
  86. Q86

    The spindle fibre is attached to which of the following specific regions of the chromosomes?

    general-sciencebiology-human-body
  87. Q87

    Which one among the following statements about facilitated transport in plants is correct?

    general-sciencebiology-plants
  88. Q88

    Transport of Na⁺ and Ca²⁺ across the plasma membrane is an example of

    general-sciencebiology-human-body
  89. Q89

    Which one of the following statements regarding allosteric enzymes is correct?

    general-sciencebiology-human-body
  90. Q90

    Out of different types of tissues found in plants, which one of the following is a complex tissue?

    general-sciencebiology-plants
  91. Q91

    Which one of the following regions in plants is responsible for the growth of its roots and shoots?

    general-sciencebiology-plants
  92. Q92

    Which one of the following arteries supplies blood to the human heart muscle?

    general-sciencebiology-human-body
  93. Q93

    Which one of the following classes demonstrates double circulation of blood?

    general-sciencebiology-human-body
  94. Q95

    Plants adapted to grow in deserts and other dry habitats are called

    general-sciencebiology-plants
  95. Q96

    Which one among the following statements regarding gypsum is not correct?

    general-sciencechemistry
  96. Q97

    Which of the following statements relating to carbon and its compounds are correct?

    1. 11-Propyne has three double bonds.
    2. 2The boiling point of acetic acid is higher than methane.
    3. 3Ethanol reacts with sodium metal and produces hydrogen gas.
    4. 4Esters give effervescence on reaction with sodium bicarbonate. Select the answer using the code given below.
    general-sciencechemistry
  97. Q98

    Which of the following reagents can cause oxidation of an alcohol?

    1. 1Hot concentrated H₂SO₄
    2. 2Alkaline KMnO₄
    3. 3Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
    4. 4Acidified KMnO₄ Select the answer using the code given below.
    general-sciencechemistry
  98. Q99

    Which one among the following statements is not correct?

    general-sciencechemistry
  99. Q100

    Which one of the following is not an exothermic reaction?

    general-sciencechemistry
  100. Q101

    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List I (Compound):

    1. ANitrolim;
    2. BAmmonium Nitrate;
    3. CUrea;
    4. DPotassium Nitrate.

    List II (Chemical Formula):

    1. 1CO(NH₂)₂;
    2. 2KNO₃;
    3. 3CaNCN;
    4. 4NH₄NO₃. Code :
    general-sciencechemistry
  101. Q102

    Which of the following triads was not given by Dobereiner?

    general-sciencechemistry
  102. Q103

    Consider the following statements:

    1. 1The circulation of nitrogen from the inorganic compounds in the soil to form protein in plants and animals and back again is known as the nitrogen cycle.
    2. 2The preparation of ammonia by Haber process is an endothermic reaction.
    3. 3Urea is synthetically made by the action of ammonia and carbon dioxide under high temperature and high pressure.

    Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

    general-sciencechemistry
  103. Q104

    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List I (Reaction):

    1. ACH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O + heat and light;
    2. BMg + H₂SO₄ → MgSO₄ + H₂;
    3. C2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O;
    4. DNaCl + AgNO₃ → NaNO₃ + AgCl.

    List II (Type of Reaction):

    1. 1Combustion;
    2. 2Double displacement;
    3. 3Displacement;
    4. 4Neutralization. Code :
    general-sciencechemistry
  104. Q105

    Consider the following statements :

    1. 1Potassium carbonate is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base.
    2. 2Ammonium nitrate is a salt of a strong acid and a weak base.
    3. 3Ammonium acetate is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    general-sciencechemistry
  105. Q106

    Which one of the following principles of physics is primarily used in sonography, a medical diagnostic process?

    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  106. Q107

    Which one among the following laws states that magnetic monopoles do not exist?

    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  107. Q108

    The larger area under the hysteresis curve (B-H) of a ferromagnetic material depicts

    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  108. Q109

    The working principle of refrigerator is based on the

    general-sciencephysics-mechanics
  109. Q110

    When sunlight (white light) falls on a triangular glass prism, a band of colours called a spectrum is obtained. Which one among the following represents this effect appropriately?

    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  110. Q111

    Which one among the following statements related to human eye is correct?

    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  111. Q112

    The potential difference between the terminals of an electrical heating device is 40 V, when it draws a current of 2 A from the source. Which one of the following is the correct value of current drawn by the heating device if the potential is increased to 140 V?

    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  112. Q113

    A beam of positively charged particles, say A, is going from north to south. On the other hand, a beam of negatively charged particles, say B, is going from south to north. Which one of the following in this respect is correct?

    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  113. Q114

    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List I (Device):

    1. APeriscope;
    2. BLightning conductors;
    3. CThermos flask;
    4. DLevers.

    List II (Phenomenon):

    1. 1Conduction and convection minimization;
    2. 2Moment of a force;
    3. 3Reflection by plane mirrors;
    4. 4Static electricity. Code :
    general-sciencephysics-light-electricity
  114. Q115

    Consider the following statements regarding mechanical properties of solids:

    1. 1The ratio of tensile stress to longitudinal strain is defined as bulk modulus.
    2. 2The ratio of hydraulic stress to corresponding hydraulic strain is called Young's modulus.
    3. 3The ratio of shearing stress to corresponding shearing strain is called modulus of rigidity.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    general-sciencephysics-mechanics
  115. Q116

    Which one among the following computer languages is the oldest?

    general-scienceinformation-technology
  116. Q117

    Which one of the following is an application of Artificial Intelligence?

    general-scienceinformation-technology
  117. Q118

    What is the correct term used for a set of wires used to connect different internal components of the computer system for the purpose of transferring data as well as addresses amongst them?

    general-scienceinformation-technology
  118. Q119

    Consider the following :

    1. 1Small memory
    2. 2Less expensive memory
    3. 3Fast memory

    Which of the above are the characteristics of the cache memory?

    general-scienceinformation-technology
  119. Q120

    1 gigabyte in binary system is equivalent to

    general-scienceinformation-technology
  120. Q121

    The seasonal variations in the amount of solar energy that any place on the Earth receives are influenced by

    indian-world-geographyclimatology
  121. Q122

    The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty which provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation of

    current-eventsenvironment-news
  122. Q123

    Consider the following statements about the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) :

    1. 1It is an international body for assessing the science related to climate change.
    2. 2It was set up in the year 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    current-eventsenvironment-news
  123. Q124

    India's key climate targets include

    1. 1reduction of 33%-35% in greenhouse gas emissions intensity by 2030
    2. 2increase in non-fossil fuel energy capacity to 500 GW
    3. 3achieving net-zero emissions by 2070 Select the answer using the code given below.
    current-eventsenvironment-news
  124. Q125

    Which one among the following is not a greenhouse gas?

    general-sciencebiotech-environment-science