Q1
The evening looked ____________ against the stretched out sky.
General EnglishGrammar and usage
UPSC EPFO · Solved paper
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- Q2
Summers ____________ be really hot at times, so make sure you stay hydrated.
General EnglishGrammar and usage - Q3
I was wondering which festival ____________ we celebrate together this year?
General EnglishGrammar and usage - Q4
I was ____________ exhausted by the end of the week spent in the library doing research work.
General EnglishGrammar and usage - Q5
They ____________ be very far away. I saw them a little while ago.
General EnglishGrammar and usage - Q6
In the above passage there are four blanks numbered (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Select the option from those given below in which the most appropriate term has been used for each of the blanks respectively:
General EnglishReading comprehension - Q7
Which of the following sentences with respect to the passage is/are correct?
- 1All rich western nations have been seeing an increase in emigration from Africa over the past few decades.
- 2Over the past thirty-five odd years, the number of African origin people living outside Africa has gone up by a factor of three.
- 3The fierce resistance to labour incursion into the West will temper emigration from Africa in the $21^{st}$ century. Select the answer using the codes given below:
General EnglishReading comprehension - Q8
With reference to the passage, which of the following are factors that can be seen to be determining the movement of Africans to other countries to seek work?
- 1Younger populations in developing countries like the Philippines and Mexico
- 2Only about 20 per cent of the required jobs being available within African nations
- 3Fierce backlash from Western countries given the increasing immigration load Select the answer using the codes given below:
General EnglishReading comprehension - Q9
Which one of the following options most appropriately describes the phrase "exacerbating labour shortages"?
General EnglishReading comprehension - Q10
Which one of the following is the figure of speech in the expression "Africa is on the move"?
General EnglishReading comprehension - Q11
In the following sentences prepositions or phrasal verbs have been used, which have been underlined in each instance respectively. Select the sentence(s) wherein the use of the preposition or phrasal verb is/are correct:
- 1The delivery reached its destination just about time.
- 2The evidence presented by Shyam states something different than what is being presented by Ram.
- 3That is the difference of somebody doing his duty and not doing his duty. Select the answer using the codes given below:
General EnglishPrepositions and phrasal verbs - Q12
Select the sentence(s) wherein the use of the preposition or phrasal verb is/are correct:
- 1Amidst the scuffle and the resultant confusion, the thief managed to slip away.
- 2There was not a single person amongst those assembled who was willing to become the leader.
- 3Among the members of the community the local doctor was the one who was most respected. Select the answer using the codes given below:
General EnglishPrepositions and phrasal verbs - Q13
Select the sentence(s) wherein the use of the preposition or phrasal verb is/are correct:
- 1Raj's apartment was three floors underneath the Subramanian residence.
- 2There was little space below the tin roof and the scaffolding for the squirrel to hide in.
- 3Inside the box was the secret he had been searching for all his life. Select the answer using the codes given below:
General EnglishPrepositions and phrasal verbs - Q14
Select the sentence(s) wherein the use of the preposition or phrasal verb is/are correct:
- 1The ship put in at the first available port to repair its damaged hull.
- 2The advertisement was put out for wide circulation.
- 3The matter had become so urgent that it could not be put off for another day. Select the answer using the codes given below:
General EnglishPrepositions and phrasal verbs - Q15
Select the sentence(s) wherein the use of the preposition or phrasal verb is/are correct:
- 1It is widely acknowledged that he takes after his aunt.
- 2He was reluctant to take in any more responsibility.
- 3He assured the client that he would take out the matter at the first given opportunity. Select the answer using the codes given below:
General EnglishPrepositions and phrasal verbs - Q16
The fact that the deliberations were carried out in a cordial manner pleased the old guard very much. Select the option that is closest in meaning to the underlined word:
General EnglishVocabulary - Q17
His views on the matter have been impugned by those evaluating his role in the community as its erstwhile ruler. Select the option that is closest in meaning to the underlined word:
General EnglishVocabulary - Q18
His ad hominem comments on his colleague were considered egregious by those present. Select the option that is closest in meaning to the underlined word:
General EnglishVocabulary - Q19
Once he began to savour the taste of true wealth, he abandoned all his erstwhile ideas regarding social welfare and was subsequently labelled an apostate. Select the option that is closest in meaning to the underlined word:
General EnglishVocabulary - Q20
The debate around the corporeity of the soul presents a compelling paradox. Select the option that is closest in meaning to the underlined word:
General EnglishVocabulary - Q21
Which one among the following correctly stands for the acronym AWACS?
General ScienceDefence technology - Q22
As a countermeasure to drone swarm attack an effective way is to use electromagnetic (EM) drone jamming to disrupt the GPS and communication system of the drones. Which one among the following is the correct frequency range used for EM drone jamming?
General ScienceEmerging technology - Q23
Which one among the following is the method employed by GPS to find the location of a target?
General ScienceSpace and satellite technology - Q24
Which one among the following is the nature of the substance filling up the pleural cavity, the space between the lungs and the chest?
General ScienceHuman biology - Q25
Which one among the following statements with regard to fatty acids is correct?
General ScienceNutrition - Q26
Which one among the following are the primary reactants of photochemical smog?
General ScienceEnvironment and pollution - Q27
Which one among the following is known as Carbolic acid?
General ScienceChemistry - Q28
Which one among the following is the primary commercial use of Amines?
General ScienceChemistry - Q29
Which one among the following with regard to ChatGPT is correct?
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArtificial Intelligence - Q30
For training and deploying complex models in Artificial Intelligence, which one among the following is preferred?
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer hardware - Q31
Which one among the following correctly stands for SSL encryption with regard to banking websites?
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet and security - Q32
Which of the following statements with regard to the solid state drive (SSD) is/are correct?
- 1Spinning speed of SSD is zero.
- 2SSD consumes more energy compared to hard disk drive (HDD).
- 3SSD could be used as virtual memory when RAM is insufficient.
- 4SSD can replace the processor. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer storage - Q33
Which one among the following could be a permanent memory of a computer?
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer memory - Q34
Which one among the following is the primary environmental concern associated with permafrost thawing in the Arctic?
General ScienceEnvironment and climate - Q35
Which one among the following determines the Hardness Index of fresh water?
General ScienceChemistry - Q36
Which one of the following is not a currently existing Scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
Social Security in IndiaEPF & MP Act, 1952 - Q37
The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, does not apply to which one of the following establishments registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912?
Social Security in IndiaEPF & MP Act, 1952 - Q38
Mr. X earns wages of ₹20,000 per month. What will be the contributions to the ESI Scheme under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
Social Security in IndiaESI Act, 1948 - Q39
Which one of the following is not a benefit provided to an employee under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
Social Security in IndiaESI Act, 1948 - Q40
Consider the following statements in reference to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936:
- 1Wages may be paid in current coins.
- 2Wage period can be fixed for weekly payment.
- 3Wages are to be paid before the expiry of the seventh day after the last day of the wage period in establishments employing more than 1000 persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsPayment of Wages Act, 1936 - Q41
Which of the following deductions from wages can be made under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
- 1Deductions for amenities and services supplied by the employer
- 2Deductions for recovery of advances
- 3Deductions for payments to co-operative societies Select the answer using the codes given below:
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsPayment of Wages Act, 1936 - Q42
Loss of one eye without complication, the other being normal, is considered as what kind of injury under Schedule I of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923?
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsEmployees' Compensation Act, 1923 - Q43
A person 'X', aged 48 years, was working in a mine where he met a fatal accident while working underground. He was receiving monthly wage of ₹12,000 when this unfortunate incident occurred. What is the amount of compensation payable to him under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923? (Relevant factor being 159.80)
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsEmployees' Compensation Act, 1923 - Q44
In which one of the following judgments did the Supreme Court lay down the 'Triple test' in respect of the definition of 'industry' under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsIndustrial Disputes Act, 1947 - Q45
Which one of the following industries is not a public utility service under the First Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsIndustrial Disputes Act, 1947 - Q46
The mandate of giving a notice of six weeks as provided under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is/are applicable to which of the following categories of people?
- 1Workmen employed in public utility service, before going for a strike
- 2Employers carrying out public utility service, before declaring lock-out
- 3Workmen employed in any service, before going for a strike Select the answer using the codes given below:
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsIndustrial Disputes Act, 1947 - Q47
In which of the following situations will gratuity be payable to Mr. 'X' under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?
- 1Mr. 'X' resigns from the industry after rendering continuous service for six years
- 2Mr. 'X' dies due to an accident in the industry after rendering continuous service for two years
- 3Mr. 'X' retires from the industry after rendering continuous service for five years Select the answer using the codes given below:
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsPayment of Gratuity Act, 1972 - Q48
Which one of the following is not a right provided to a registered Trade Union under Chapter III of the Trade Unions Act, 1926?
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsTrade Unions Act, 1926 - Q49
In which one of the following circumstances, can Ms. 'X', who is a government servant not claim maternity benefit of twenty-six weeks as prescribed under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsMaternity Benefit Act, 1961 - Q50
How many nursing breaks does the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 prescribe for a woman who returns to work after her delivery?
Industrial Relations and Labour LawsMaternity Benefit Act, 1961 - Q51
The length of candle B is 3 times the length of candle A. The speed of burning of Candle B is 4 times the speed of burning of Candle A. A party begins with the lighting of these two candles. The party ends when the heights of these candles become equal. If the numerical value of length (in metre) of the burnt away portion of Candle A and the speed (in metre per hour) of its burning are same, how long, in hours, did the party continue?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsTime and work - Q52
Five prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The ratio of the product of the first three of them to that of the last three of them is 35: 323. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest numbers?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system - Q53
In a movie hall, there are three categories of seats: Diamond, Gold and Silver. On a week day, the prices per ticket in these categories are ₹500, ₹300 and ₹200, respectively. But on weekends, the prices are raised to ₹800, ₹500 and ₹300, respectively. There are exactly 10 Diamond seats and the number of Silver seats is double the number of Gold seats. If the hall goes house full in all the shows, which of the following is the excess earning made per show on a weekend?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsArithmetic - Q54
How many digits are there in 6^25? (It is given that log10(2) = 0.3010 and log10(3) = 0.4771)
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsLogarithms - Q55
In a business, A, B and C had invested in the ratio of 2:3:5, but they all earned the same amount of profit at the end. If the profit is proportional to the amount as well as the duration of the investment, what will be the ratio of duration of their investments?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsRatio and partnership - Q56
If five persons take five hours to paint five walls of equal area, how many hours will 7 persons take to paint 7 walls of equal area, provided both the sets of walls are identical?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsTime and work - Q57
If 2nd February, 2025 was Sunday, which day was it on 1st February, 2024?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsCalendar - Q58
A train starts from station A at 9 AM and reaches station B at 2 PM. Another train starts from station B at 11 AM and reaches station A at 3 PM. On their way, they meet at a point P. The distances from station A to P and from station B to P bear the ratio:
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsTime, speed and distance - Q59
If x percent of a is same as y percent of b, then what percent of a is z percent of b?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsPercentages - Q60
Consider the following Assertion and Reason: Assertion: 15% discount on the marked price of an item is more than the subsequent (successive) discount of 10% and 5% on the marked price of the same item. Reason: A subsequent (successive) discount is on the discounted amount. Which one of the following is correct with regard to the above Assertion and Reason?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsProfit, loss and discount - Q61
Three distinct positive integers a, b and c are such that b-a = c-b and a+b+c = 12. What is the maximum number of such possible sets (a, b, c)?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system - Q62
Find the missing term in the following alpha-numeric series: C-24, H-19, M-14, ?, W-4
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsSeries - Q63
How many three-digit numbers are there that have the middle digit as the sum of the first digit and the third digit?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system - Q64
The scores of 16 students in a test are as follows: 19, 4, 17, 7, 15, 2, 18, 11, 15, 17, 19, 4, 3, 2, 6, 9. What is the difference between their arithmetic mean and the median?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsStatistics - Q65
Two unbiased dice, each marked 1 to 6 on their faces, are rolled simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the outcomes on the top faces of both dice is 7 or 10?
General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsProbability - Q66
Shri Jatin Goswami, a Padma Bhushan awardee in the year 2025, is an exponent of which one of the following dance forms?
Current Events and Developmental IssuesArt and culture in news - Q67
Two Indian Serviceman were posthumously conferred with the Dag Hammarskjöld medal in the year 2025 by which one of the following international organisations?
Current Events and Developmental IssuesAwards and honours - Q68
Consider the following statements:
- 1Space Exploration Technologies Corp. is commonly known as SpaceX.
- 2'Falcon' is a space vehicle developed by SpaceX whereas 'Dragon' is a space vehicle developed by 'NASA'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Current Events and Developmental IssuesScience and technology in news - Q69
Which of the following statements relating to 2026 FIFA Men's Football World Cup is/are correct?
- 1USA, Mexico and Canada will jointly host the event.
- 248 teams shall participate in the event. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Current Events and Developmental IssuesSports in news - Q70
Paetongtarn Shinawatra was removed by Thailand's Constitutional Court in the year 2025 over a leaked phone call with a senior statesperson of which neighbouring country?
Current Events and Developmental IssuesInternational affairs - Q71
Which of the following statements relating to the 'Scheme for Promotion of Registration of Employers and Employees (SPREE) 2025' is/are correct?
- 1SPREE is approved by the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC).
- 2SPREE provides a one-time opportunity for unregistered employers and employees including contractual and temporary workers. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Social Security in IndiaESIC - SPREE 2025 - Q72
'Zero Defect, Zero Effect' is an initiative of which one among the following Ministries of the Government of India?
Current Events and Developmental IssuesGovernment schemes - Q73
Which of the following statements relating to the recent steps taken by the "Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO)" is/are correct?
- 1EPFO has enhanced member services by increasing the auto-settlement limit for advance claims from the existing ₹1 lakh to ₹3 lakh.
- 2EPFO first introduced auto-settlement of advance claims during the COVID-19 pandemic. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Social Security in IndiaEPFO - Q74
Which of the following statements relating to the recent steps taken by the Government of India under the 'Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme' is/are correct?
- 1ELI Scheme has an outlay of about ₹1 lakh crore.
- 2Establishments registered with the EPFO are required to hire at least two additional employees (with fewer than 50 employees) or five additional employees (with 50 or more employees), on a sustained basis for at least six months, to avail benefits under the ELI Scheme. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Social Security in IndiaEmployment Linked Incentive Scheme - Q75
The Union Cabinet had approved a new Framework on Currency Swap Arrangement with which regional bloc for the period 2024-2027?
Current Events and Developmental IssuesInternational economic cooperation - Q76
The principle of inventory valuation - "cost or net realisable value, whichever is lower" is based on:
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceFinal accounts - Q77
Which one of the following is not a 'fundamental accounting assumption' in the preparation of financial statements?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceBills of exchange - Q78
Which one of the following is a revenue expenditure?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceRoyalty accounts - Q79
When purchase of an asset is treated as an expense, in the accounting context, it is called:
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceFinal accounts - Q80
In accounting context, which one of the following statements is correct?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceFinal accounts - Q81
Which one of the following statements is correct?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceTrial balance and errors - Q82
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceDepreciation - Q83
Which one of the following is correct?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceCash flow analysis - Q84
Which one of the following costs is generally not included in computing the cost of inventory?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceFinal accounts - Q85
Which one of the following will be the adjustment journal entry if the rent received in advance is ₹2,000?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceCapital and revenue expenditure - Q86
In case of contract of insurance, the principle which states that it is the duty of the insured to take reasonable steps to minimize the loss or damage to the insured property is called:
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceCompany accounts - Q87
Which one of the following is not a Contract of Indemnity?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceTypes of accounts - Q88
Which one of the following statements about audit documentation is not correct?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceBasic accounting concepts - Q89
In the context of auditing, the primary objective of vouching is:
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceRatio analysis - Q90
Which one of the following is not the objective of verification in auditing?
General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceFinal accounts - Q91
Consider the following statements regarding Social Protection in India:
- 1The World Social Protection Report (WSPR) 2024-26 released by the International Labour Organization estimates that India's social protection coverage has doubled from 2021 to 2024.
- 2The Ministry of Labour and Employment estimates that nearly 65% of the population are now covered by at least one form of social protection, whether in cash or in kind, through Central Government schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Social Security in IndiaSocial protection - Q92
The classification of Micro, Small and Medium enterprises is based on which of the following factors?
- 1Annual turnover
- 2Number of workers
- 3Investment in plant and machinery or equipment Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian EconomyMSME - Q93
Fiscal Health Index 2025 published by the NITI Aayog provides a comprehensive assessment of fiscal health of 18 major States based on which of the following key sub-indices?
- 1Quality of expenditure
- 2Debt index
- 3Debt sustainability
- 4Fiscal prudence
- 5Revenue mobilisation Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian EconomyFiscal policy - Q94
The contribution of the services sector in Gross Value Added at current prices in the Indian economy in 2024-25 is estimated to be:
Indian EconomyNational income - Q95
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana:
- 1The average ticket size of loan disbursed has more than doubled between FY 2016 and FY 2025.
- 2Since its launch in 2015, Maharashtra has recorded the highest disbursal among States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian EconomyFinancial inclusion - Q96
Consider the following statements:
- 1NISHTHA is an integrated teacher training programme that has been extended to cover teachers at all stages of school education.
- 2PM POSHAN covers only those school children who are studying in classes I-VI in Government and Government-aided schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Current Events and Developmental IssuesGovernment schemes - Q97
Consider the following statements:
- 1India's bio-economy contributes about 4.25% to the GDP in India.
- 2BioE3 promotes regenerative bio-manufacturing and supports a circular bio-economy aligned with India's net-zero goals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian EconomyBio-economy - Q98
Which of the following Development Financial Institutions were set up in India between 1950s and 1960s?
- 1Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
- 2Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
- 3Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
- 4National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian EconomyFinancial institutions - Q99
Core inflation includes which of the following?
- 1Food prices
- 2Energy prices Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian EconomyInflation - Q100
The rebellions that broke out at regular intervals against the British authorities in the hill region of Visakhapatnam, popularly known as the Gudem area, were due to which of the following reason(s)?
- 1The feudal affinities of the muttadars with the Bhupathi family of Golconda zamindari
- 2Placing the ex-zamindari family on the seat of Golconda
- 3British authorities' refusal to grant annual maintenance for the Bhupathi family Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Freedom StruggleTribal and peasant movements - Q101
Consider the following:
- 1Deccan Revolt
- 2Santhal Rebellion
- 3Kherwar Movement
- 4Rampa Rebellion Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above (starting with the earliest)?
Indian Freedom StruggleTribal and peasant movements - Q102
Which of the following statements about Home Rule Movement is/are correct?
- 1The advocates of the Home Rule Movement believed in constitutional methods and were opposed to violence and revolutionary action.
- 2In 1917, the two Home Rule Leagues of Lokmanya Tilak and Annie Besant worked in cooperation with each other.
- 3Annie Besant confined her activities to the Bombay Presidency and the Central Provinces and the rest of India was left to Lokmanya Tilak. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Freedom StruggleHome Rule Movement - Q103
Which of the following statements regarding the Freedom Struggle from 1920 to 1935 is/are correct?
- 1In Bihar and Bengal, the Non-Cooperation Movement owed its effectiveness to the participation of peasants.
- 2In Bihar they were organised against the planters under the banner of Kisan Sabha.
- 3In Midnapore in Bengal, Mahishya peasants rallied against the taxes of the Union Board under the leadership of Birendranath Sasmal. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Freedom StruggleGandhian movements - Q104
Which of the following statements about Bharata's Natyashastra is/are correct?
- 1It is dated by scholars between the second century BCE and the second century CE.
- 2It analyses theatrical spectacle as an amalgam of speech, vocal and instrumental music, gesture, mime, etc.
- 3The ground it covers is less extensive than Aristotle's Poetics, its nearest ancient Greek counterpart. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Culture and HeritageAncient Indian art and literature - Q105
Who amongst the following discovered the rock art of Bhimbetka?
Indian Culture and HeritagePrehistoric art - Q106
Which of the following is the correct chronological order in the evolution of Indian painting (starting with the earliest)?
- 1Mahajanaka Jataka, Ajanta
- 2Bhimbetka rock art
- 3Royal portrait, Sittannavasal cave
- 4Heavenly musicians, Brihadishvara temple Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Culture and HeritageIndian painting - Q107
Which one among the following temples in India is referred to as the "Black Pagoda"?
Indian Culture and HeritageTemple architecture - Q108
Which of the following statements with reference to Mahayana (Buddhism) is/are correct?
- 1Female deities are benevolent saviours and protectors who embody Buddhist virtues.
- 2In Prajñāpāramitā texts, knowledge is visualised in feminine form, as a deity called Prajñāpāramitā.
- 3Prajñāpāramitā is described as the source of the omniscience of all the Buddhas and the mother of all the Buddhas. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Culture and HeritageBuddhism - Q109
Which of the following statements are correct?
- 1The Chief Justice of India is the highest Administrative Officer of the Supreme Court of India.
- 2The administrative powers for determining the work structure of the Supreme Court and its Registry are exclusively vested in the Chief Justice of India.
- 3A person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court of India can practice after retirement only in the Supreme Court of India and not in any other court within India.
- 4A designated Senior Advocate of the Supreme Court of India is not entitled to appear in the Supreme Court of India without an Advocate-on-Record. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionJudiciary - Q110
Consider the following statements:
- 1The Supreme Court of India and High Courts have exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes amongst two or more States.
- 2Only the Supreme Court of India, High Courts and District Courts have the power to issue Writs.
- 3Chief Minister of a State has absolutely no role in the entire appointment process of a High Court Judge.
- 4Local customs and conventions which do not contradict a Statute or the Constitution are recognised and taken into account by Courts while administering justice in certain spheres.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionJudiciary - Q111
Consider the following statements about Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) in India:
- 1The first use of EVMs in a Lok Sabha election was in the year 2004, when EVMs were deployed nationwide.
- 2Votes are recorded in Control Units and VVPATs at exactly the same time.
- 3Two PSUs, namely Bharat Electronics Ltd. and Electronics Corporation of India Ltd. have been engaged by the Election Commission of India to design and manufacture the EVMs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionElections - Q112
Which of the following statements about National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) is/are correct?
- 1It is a Mission Mode Project (MMP) under the Digital India Programme (DIP) of the Government of India.
- 2This application is based on the principle of 'One Nation - One Application'.
- 3It has been developed by the Parliament Secretariat.
- 4Its core aim is for end-to-end digitalisation of all the functions of the State Legislatures Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionE-governance - Q113
Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE) Scheme is meant for the rehabilitation of:
- 1Transgender persons
- 2Persons engaged in the act of Begging Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionSocial justice - Q114
Consider the following statements about Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI):
- 1It works in accordance with UN Paris Principle.
- 2Fully compliant and partially compliant members are accredited as 'A' and 'B' respectively.
- 3National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), India has been accredited/classified under 'A' in the year 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionConstitutional and statutory bodies - Q115
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Provision of the Constitution of India)
- AProvisions related to Parliament
- BLegislative powers of the Governor
- CBorrowings by the Government of India
- DCooperative Societies
List II (Part of the Constitution of India)
- 1Part-VI
- 2Part-IX B
- 3Part-XII
- 4Part-V Codes:
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionConstitution - Parts - Q116
Who amongst the following is not a member of the GST Council?
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionGST Council - Q117
Which of the following statements with reference to the RTI Act is/are correct?
- 1The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Chief Justice of India.
- 2While the Chief Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment after completion of the term of five years, other Information Commissioners are eligible for reappointment. Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionRight to Information - Q118
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
- 1The Parliament can make laws on matters enumerated in the Union List and/or the Concurrent List.
- 2The Parliament can make laws on any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionUnion and State legislature - Q119
Consider the following statements:
- 1Only the Supreme Court of India is vested with the power to punish for contempt of itself.
- 2Both the Supreme Court of India and High Courts have advisory jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionJudiciary - Q120
Which of the following subjects/provisions fall(s) under the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution of India?
- 1Uniform Civil Code for all persons living in India
- 2Provision for early childhood care and education to children up to the age of 14 years
- 3Promotion of international peace and security Select the answer using the codes given below:
Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionDirective Principles