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UPSC EPFO · Solved paper

EPFO 2023 — UPSC EPFO APFC 2002

All 120 questions, textbook-style — tap “Show answer” on any question to reveal the correct option and explanation.

  1. Q1

    Each of the five items given below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) that best describes the phrase and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. Her poetry not only succeeds in brilliantly capturing the beauty of nature but also carries the power to suggest that which is too great and beautiful to be expressed in words.

    General EnglishVocabulary
  2. Q2

    Each of the five items given below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) that best describes the phrase and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The Government's policies were aimed at relieving the distress of the homeless, the unemployed and the poverty- stricken sections of society.

    General EnglishVocabulary
  3. Q3

    Each of the five items given below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) that best describes the phrase and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The organizers refused to allow him to speak at the function since he was known to make speeches that tended to provoke and ignite passions.

    General EnglishVocabulary
  4. Q4

    Direction: Each of the five items given below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) that best describes the phrase and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    Question: She was criticized for her views that were often restricted to small local issues and ignored matters of national importance.

    General EnglishVocabulary
  5. Q5

    Direction: Each of the five items given below has a phrase given in italics. Choose the one from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) that best describes the phrase and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    Question: When profits began dropping steeply all of a sudden he realized that he ought to wind up his business soon.

    General EnglishVocabulary
  6. Q6

    Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and the opinion of the author only. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives-to preserve crop diversity in focal millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s-from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017-18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, products. undertaken by women. Additionally very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping) There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). What does "agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats" mean in the passage?

    General EnglishReading comprehension
  7. Q7

    Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and the opinion of the author only. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives-to preserve crop diversity in focal millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s-from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017-18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, products. undertaken by women. Additionally very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping) There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). There has been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation because

    General EnglishReading comprehension
  8. Q8

    Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and the opinion of the author only. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives-to preserve crop diversity in focal millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s-from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017-18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, products. undertaken by women. Additionally very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping) There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu). What does "a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products" mean in the passage?

    General EnglishReading comprehension
  9. Q9

    Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and the opinion of the author only. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives-to preserve crop diversity in focal millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s-from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017-18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, products. undertaken by women. Additionally very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping) There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu).

    Question: “The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self- help groups, was a game-changer." What does it mean in the passage?

    General EnglishReading comprehension
  10. Q10

    Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and the opinion of the author only. The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives-to preserve crop diversity in focal millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled Tribe households. There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in India since the mid-1980s-from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017-18. The reasons for a shift in land use include low yields. Further, processing of millets is a time-consuming and laborious task, products. undertaken by women. Additionally very little was marketed, and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology. Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and improve local seed systems. Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers) were introduced. The introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help groups, was a game-changer. The third major initiative was training. The Kolli Hills Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation (KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and value-addition. Ready-to-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods label and market links established. Net returns from value-added products were five to ten times higher than those from grains. Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and intercropping) There have been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The shift from hand-pounding to milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption. The number of private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the technology has been marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu).

    Question: Millet yield has increased because

    General EnglishReading comprehension
  11. Q11

    Given below are five items, comprising sentences in which one word has been underlined. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is closest to the meaning of the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The essay was badly researched and contained several platitudes and generalizations.

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  12. Q12

    Given below are five items, comprising sentences in which one word has been underlined. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is closest to the meaning of the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. world. The judgment of beauty is based on the human capacity for disinterested pleasure in the natural

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  13. Q13

    Given below are five items, comprising sentences in which one word has been underlined. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is closest to the meaning of the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. The hundred-year old college building was now in a derelict state.

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  14. Q14

    Direction: Given below are five items, comprising sentences in which one word has been underlined. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is closest to the meaning of the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    Question: My serendipitous encounter with the man on the bus was to have a profound impact on my life.

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  15. Q15

    Direction: Given below are five items, comprising sentences in which one word has been underlined. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is closest to the meaning of the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    Question: Notwithstanding our victory today we must be careful to avoid a feeling of complacency.

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  16. Q16

    Each of the following five items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts to form the most appropriate sentence and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  17. Q17

    Each of the following five items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts to form the most appropriate sentence and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  18. Q18

    Each of the following five items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts to form the most appropriate sentence and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  19. Q19

    Direction: Each of the following five items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts to form the most appropriate sentence and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. Question:

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  20. Q20

    Direction: Each of the following five items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts to form the most appropriate sentence and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. Question:

    General EnglishSentence arrangement and completion
  21. Q21

    Article 43 of the Constitution of India enjoins the State to endeavour through legislation or economic organization for payment of which of the following wages?

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionFundamental Rights and DPSP
  22. Q22

    Container X contains a mixture of oil and water in the ratio 1 : 3, whereas container Y contains a mixture of oil and water in the ratio 2 : 3. If 2 litres of liquid from container X and 5 litres of liquid from container Y are mixed together in container Z that initially contains 1 liter of pure oil, then what is the percentage of oil in container Z?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system and arithmetic
  23. Q23

    solid circular metallic disc of radius 12 inches and thickness 4 inches is melted and shaped into a solid disc of radius 16 inches. What is the thickness of the new disc in inches?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system and arithmetic
  24. Q24

    The table below shows earnings (in Rs. crore) and profits (in Rs. crore) of four companies X, Y, Z and W for the years 2016 to 2020. 2016: earnings X=100, Y=95, Z=74, W=50; profits X=20.5, Y=8.5, Z=7.5, W=4. 2017: earnings X=120, Y=94, Z=77, W=58; profits X=22.4, Y=9.5, Z=8.8, W=5.5. 2018: earnings X=115, Y=92, Z=82, W=75; profits X=23.1, Y=7.5, Z=10.5, W=10.1. 2019: earnings X=125, Y=90, Z=85, W=80; profits X=20.7, Y=5.5, Z=12, W=12.5. 2020: earnings X=130, Y=96, Z=89, W=95; profits X=25.8, Y=9.5, Z=14, W=20.5. How many of these companies' earnings increased by at least 20% in 2020 compared with 2016?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsAlgebra and data interpretation
  25. Q25

    The table below shows earnings (in Rs. crore) and profits (in Rs. crore) of four companies X, Y, Z and W for the years 2016 to 2020. 2016: earnings X=100, Y=95, Z=74, W=50; profits X=20.5, Y=8.5, Z=7.5, W=4. 2017: earnings X=120, Y=94, Z=77, W=58; profits X=22.4, Y=9.5, Z=8.8, W=5.5. 2018: earnings X=115, Y=92, Z=82, W=75; profits X=23.1, Y=7.5, Z=10.5, W=10.1. 2019: earnings X=125, Y=90, Z=85, W=80; profits X=20.7, Y=5.5, Z=12, W=12.5. 2020: earnings X=130, Y=96, Z=89, W=95; profits X=25.8, Y=9.5, Z=14, W=20.5. In 2020, the relative profit jump of which company was maximum over the previous year?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsAlgebra and data interpretation
  26. Q26

    The table below shows earnings (in Rs. crore) and profits (in Rs. crore) of four companies X, Y, Z and W for the years 2016 to 2020. 2016: earnings X=100, Y=95, Z=74, W=50; profits X=20.5, Y=8.5, Z=7.5, W=4. 2017: earnings X=120, Y=94, Z=77, W=58; profits X=22.4, Y=9.5, Z=8.8, W=5.5. 2018: earnings X=115, Y=92, Z=82, W=75; profits X=23.1, Y=7.5, Z=10.5, W=10.1. 2019: earnings X=125, Y=90, Z=85, W=80; profits X=20.7, Y=5.5, Z=12, W=12.5. 2020: earnings X=130, Y=96, Z=89, W=95; profits X=25.8, Y=9.5, Z=14, W=20.5. In 2017, the absolute profit jump of which company was minimum over the previous year?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsAlgebra and data interpretation
  27. Q27

    The value of long-term investment in shares is subject to wide fluctuations. A provision created against fluctuation in value of investments is based on the convention of

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceFinal accounts
  28. Q28

    Which one of the following aspects is not covered in audit?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceAuditing
  29. Q29

    Which of the following sets the scope, timing and direction of the audit, and guides the development of the more detailed audit plan?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceAuditing
  30. Q30

    Goodwill Account is a/an

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceAccounting concepts and conventions
  31. Q31

    The principle of subrogation in insurance allows

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceInsurance
  32. Q32

    Which of the following expenditures are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India?

    1. 1The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
    2. 2The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his/her office
    3. 3The salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court
    4. 4The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionUnion and State government
  33. Q33

    Consider the following statements:

    1. 1Population change in an area is an important indicator of economic development of that region.
    2. 2Population change in an area is not an indicator of social upliftment of that region.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    Population, Development and GlobalizationPopulation and demography
  34. Q34

    Which one among the following statements regarding ‘human development' is not correct?

    Indian EconomyPoverty, employment and development
  35. Q35

    Which of the following statements about globalization is/are correct?

    1. 1It has fuelled the spread of trans- border currencies, digital cash and global credit cards.
    2. 2Securities markets have gained a global dimension with the development of electronic round- the- world trading.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Population, Development and GlobalizationGlobalization
  36. Q36

    As per FAOSTAT (Food and Agriculture Organization Corporate Statistical Database), which of the following is/are correct about India's milk production?

    1. 1India ranked second in the world in milk production in the year 2021-22.
    2. 2India contributed 24% of global milk production in the year 2021-22.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian EconomyGrowth and sectors
  37. Q37

    Which one of the following statements about the Group of Twenty (G20) is not correct?

    Current Events and Developmental IssuesNational current affairs
  38. Q38

    The Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2022 was awarded for

    Current Events and Developmental IssuesNational current affairs
  39. Q39

    Which of the following statements about a ‘unicorn' is/are correct?

    1. 1In the venture capital industry, the term unicorn' refers to any startup that reaches the valuation of $10 billion.
    2. 2Only a privately held startup can be a unicorn.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian EconomyGrowth and sectors
  40. Q40

    Which of the following statements about Santosh Trophy Tournament, 2023 is/are correct?

    1. 1The final match was played in Riyadh.
    2. 2The final match was played between Karnataka and Meghalaya..

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Current Events and Developmental IssuesNational current affairs
  41. Q41

    Which of the following is not a capital expenditure?

    Indian EconomyFiscal policy and budget
  42. Q42

    Which one of the following is not a correct IP address?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet and communication
  43. Q43

    In mesh topology, if we have six- computers, how many links must be there?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet and communication
  44. Q44

    The binary equivalent of the octal number 473 is

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer fundamentals
  45. Q45

    Which one among the following commands is used to check he error status of hard disk drive?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer fundamentals
  46. Q46

    Which one of the following registers contains the address of the next location in the memory to be accessed?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer fundamentals
  47. Q47

    The effluents of which among the following industries are considered to be the main cause for lowering the pH value of river water?

    General ScienceChemistry
  48. Q48

    Which one of the following is not a soap?

    General ScienceChemistry
  49. Q49

    The human eyeball is composed of three layers. The correct sequence of the layers from exterior to interior is

    General ScienceBiology
  50. Q50

    Consider the following reaction: 2H₂ (g) + O₂ (g) → 2H₂ O(l) Which one of the following statements about the reaction given above is correct?

    General ScienceChemistry
  51. Q51

    The pillar-like structures which hang vertically downward from the aerial branches found in banyan tree are known as

    General ScienceBiology
  52. Q52

    Which of the following was/were recommended by the Thungon Committee in respect of ‘local governments’ in India?

    1. 1Constitutional status
    2. 2Three-year term

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionFederalism and local governance
  53. Q53

    ‘eSanjeevani’, scheme of the Government of India, serves which one among the following objectives?

    Current Events and Developmental IssuesNational current affairs
  54. Q54

    Which of the following statements about recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission is/are correct?

    1. 1Basic (untied) grants can be used by rural local bodies for location- specific felt needs under the 29 subjects enshrined in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India except for salaries and other establishment costs.
    2. 2Tied grants can be used for basic services of sanitation and maintenance of ODF status, management and treatment of household excreta waste and human
    3. 3It recommended Health Grants' to create diagnostic infrastructure in primary health care facilities.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionConstitutional and statutory bodies
  55. Q55

    Which of the following statements about the functions of the State Finance Commission is/are correct?

    1. 1It reviews the financial position of the local governments in the State.
    2. 2It reviews the distribution of revenue between rural and urban local governments.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionFederalism and local governance
  56. Q56

    CAMPA fund is regulated by which one of the following Ministries?

    Current Events and Developmental IssuesNational current affairs
  57. Q57

    An employee working in an establishment draws a monthly wage of ₹ 9,000 as fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 and is eligible to get bonus under the Payment of Bonus, Act, 1965 for the accounting year 2021-22. The bonus payable is at the rate of 10%. If the employee has worked paid to the employee? continuously for whole of the said accounting year, then what is the amount of bonus that shall

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsWage-related laws
  58. Q58

    Which one of the following statements relating to conclusion of conciliation proceedings under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct?

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsIndustrial Disputes Act, 1947
  59. Q59

    The provision for disability compensations for the person, who is declared unfit after medical examination and for whom no alternate employment is possible, finds place under which one of the following legislations?

    Social Security in IndiaGratuity and compensation
  60. Q60

    Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prohibits employment of children in factory or mine or any other hazardous employment?

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionFundamental Rights and DPSP
  61. Q61

    The insurance claim received on account of machinery damaged completely by fire is

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceInsurance
  62. Q62

    According to the Accounting Standard-1, which of the following are the fundamental accounting assumptions?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceAccounting concepts and conventions
  63. Q63

    Which of the following errors is not detected by Trial Balance?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceRecording transactions
  64. Q64

    Which one of the following statements is correct?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceFinal accounts
  65. Q65

    Which one of the following is not an error of commission?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceRecording transactions
  66. Q66

    Which of the following operators connects a structure variable and its element?

    General ScienceChemistry
  67. Q67

    Which of the following is not a top-down language?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer fundamentals
  68. Q68

    Which one of the following attributes is required for internal linking in HTML?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet and communication
  69. Q69

    Which one of the following types of operating systems is designed to respond to an predetermined time?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer fundamentals
  70. Q70

    What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number 5A6D?

    Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer fundamentals
  71. Q71

    Two lenses of powers +2.0 D and –2.5 D are combined to make an optical instrument. The combination will

    General SciencePhysics
  72. Q72

    For an inelastic collision between two objects, which one among the following statements is correct?

    General SciencePhysics
  73. Q73

    train starting from rest with a uniform acceleration attains a speed of 108 km/h in 5 minutes. The distance covered by the train in attaining the speed is

    General SciencePhysics
  74. Q74

    An object is placed in front of a concave mirror at infinity. Which one of the following is correct for its image?

    General SciencePhysics
  75. Q75

    The main cause of ocean acidification is

    General ScienceChemistry
  76. Q76

    Which of the following statements regarding the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are not correct?

    1. 1It is a discretionary power and does not entail the advice of the Ministers.
    2. 2The Ordinance-making power of the Governor is confined to subjects in all the three Lists of Schedule VII.
    3. 3With regard to repugnancy with a Union Law relating to the concurrent subjects, the Governor's Ordinance will prevail not with- standing repugnancy, if the Ordinance had been made in pursuance of instructions' of the President of India..

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionUnion and State government
  77. Q77

    Which of the following statements about curative petition is/are correct?

    1. 1It can be entertained by the Supreme Court of India only.
    2. 2It can be entertained by the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts of India.
    3. 3Certification by a Senior Advocate is necessary to file a curative petition.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionJudiciary
  78. Q78

    Consider the following statements:

    1. 1The Department of Economic Affairs is a nodal agency of the Government of India to formulate and monitor the country's economic policies and programmes that have a bearing on the domestic and international aspects of economic management.
    2. 2The principal responsibility of the Department of Economic Affairs is the preparation and presentation of the Union Budget (including the Railway Budget) before the Parliament, and the Budgets for Union Territories and States under the President's Rule.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Indian EconomyGrowth and sectors
  79. Q79

    Which of the following statements regarding the District Planning Committee and Metropolitan Planning Committee is/are correct?

    1. 1In case of the District Planning Committee, at least 4/5th of the members shall be elected by the elected members of the district level Panchayat and of the Municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. Their proportion would be in accordance with the ratio of urban to rural population of the district.
    2. 2In case of the Metropolitan Planning Committee, at least 2/3rd of the members of the committee shall be elected by the elected members of the Municipalities and the Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area from amongst themselves. The proportion of the seats to be Panchayats in the area. shared by them would be based on the ratio of the population of the Municipalities and of the

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian Polity, Governance and ConstitutionFederalism and local governance
  80. Q80

    Which of the following are the major objectives of setting up of Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)?

    1. 1To foster innovations and entrepreneurship
    2. 2To promote affordable innovations in key social sectors
    3. 3To empower startups and small and medium enterprises
    4. 4To encourage young investigators for entrepreneurial and managerial development in SMEs in bio- technology

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Indian EconomyGrowth and sectors
  81. Q81

    Which one among the following observations pertaining to the works of Nineteenth- Twentieth Century archaeologists is not correct?

    Indian Culture and HeritageAncient art and architecture
  82. Q82

    Which one of the following was an important contributing factor in the rise of Magadha as the most powerful Mahajanapada between the Sixth and the Fourth Centuries BCE?

    Indian EconomyInflation and external sector
  83. Q83

    Which one among the following statements about the Kailashanatha temple at Ellora is not correct?

    Indian Culture and HeritageAncient art and architecture
  84. Q84

    Which one of the following statements about ancient Indian pottery is correct?

    Indian Culture and HeritagePaintings and crafts
  85. Q85

    Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    Indian Culture and HeritageAncient art and architecture
  86. Q86

    What is the time limit prescribed under the provisions of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 from the date of reference within which the Commissioner is required to dispose of the matter relating to compensation: and intimate the decision to the employee?

    Social Security in IndiaGratuity and compensation
  87. Q87

    What of is the minimum number employees employed by an establishment functioning without the aid of power and is registered under the Cooperative Societies Act, 1912 that shall require it to come within the purview of the Employees' Provident Punds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

    Social Security in IndiaEPF & MP Act, 1952
  88. Q88

    Any question relating to disablement shall be determined by which one of the following authorities under the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948?

    Social Security in IndiaESI Act, 1948
  89. Q89

    What is the amount of compensation that is to be paid to an employee who is totally and permanently disabled as a result from injury under the provisions of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923? (Hints Monthly wages drawn were ₹ 22,500 and relevant factor is 159.80)

    Social Security in IndiaGratuity and compensation
  90. Q90

    What is the minimum number of employees required to be working in an establishment, so that the employer, with the authorization of the majority of the employees of the establishment, may apply to the Central Government to authorize the employer to create a separate Provident Fund Account for the employees under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

    Social Security in IndiaESI Act, 1948
  91. Q91

    Following are the Central Federations of Trade Unions of Workers formed in India:

    1. 1Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
    2. 2All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
    3. 3Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA)
    4. 4United Trade Union Congress (UTUC)
    5. 5Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
    6. 6Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their formation from the earliest to the latest?
    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsTrade Unions Act, 1926
  92. Q92

    Which one of the following core conventions adopted by the Inter- national Labour Organization (ILO) has not been ratified by India?

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsIndustrial relations concepts
  93. Q93

    Suppose there are five trade unions, namely A, B, C, D and E functioning in an establishment currently employing 1100 workmen. The membership strength of each union is as follows: Based on the strength of membership, which of the above unions can be registered under the Trade Unions act, 1926?

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsTrade Unions Act, 1926
  94. Q94

    Registration of trade unions of workers under the Trade Unions Act, 1926 is

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsTrade Unions Act, 1926
  95. Q95

    The Right of workers to resort to strike is the

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsIndustrial Disputes Act, 1947
  96. Q96

    PQ and RS are chords on a circle centred at O. Suppose A is the point of intersection of PQ and RS. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. 1If A and O coincide, then the four parts of the circle produced by the chords shall always have equal areas.
    2. 2If A and O do not coincide, then two of the four parts of the circle produced by the chords shall always have equal areas.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system and arithmetic
  97. Q97

    P. Q, R, Sand T are five friends. The mean of weights of P, Q, R and S is 50 kg. whereas the mean of

    1. 1The weight of 7 is 50 kg. weights of Q, R, S and T is also 50 kg. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    2. 2The weights of P and T are equal.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsLogical reasoning
  98. Q98

    P. Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a row facing North. P and S are neighbours; W is a neighbour of both Q and U; T is a neighbour of R and V. If there are four people between P and V, how many people are there between P and R?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsLogical reasoning
  99. Q99

    The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from the top and bottom of a 10 metres tall building are 30º and 45º respectively. Approximately what is the height of the tower in metres from the top of the building (given that √3 = 1.73)?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsTime, work and measurement
  100. Q100

    multiple-choice question paper has 50 questions. Each question has got four options, namely A, B, C and D. Each correct answer carries 4 marks and each wrong answer carries-1 mark. A candidate decides to tick in the pattern A, B, C, D, A, B, C, D, A, B, C, D, .... and so on starting from Question No. 1, till the end. If option (C) is the correct answer in each question, then what is the total score of the candidate?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsElementary statistics
  101. Q101

    Which one of the following recommended that the public health expenditure of the Union and State Governments together should be increased in a progressive manner to reach 2.5 percent of GDP by the year 2025?

    Indian EconomyFiscal policy and budget
  102. Q102

    Kautilya in his Arthashastra describes the availability of varieties of pearls from the

    Indian Culture and HeritageReligions, philosophy and literature
  103. Q103

    Which one of the following pairs of Dynasty and King of the Vijayanagara Empire is not correctly o matched?

    Indian Culture and HeritageAncient art and architecture
  104. Q104

    Vengi, the capital city of the Eastern Chalukyas, is identified with which one of the following places?

    Indian Culture and HeritageAncient art and architecture
  105. Q105

    Who among the following was the first elected King of the Pala Dynasty in Kamarupa?

    Indian Culture and HeritageAncient art and architecture
  106. Q106

    Freedom fighter Agadhu Samantra (Orissa) served the British-Indian Army. Later on he left the British service to join the Indian National Army (INA) in 1942. Where was he deputed by INA as a Naik in the First Bahadur Group?

    Indian Freedom StruggleTowards independence
  107. Q107

    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

    List I (Central Trade Union Federation):

    1. ACentre of Indian Trade Unions;
    2. BIndian National Trade Union Congress;
    3. CBharatiya Mazdoor Sangh;
    4. DAll India Trade Union Congress.

    List II (Political Party):

    1. 1Indian National Congress;
    2. 2Bharatiya Janata Party;
    3. 3Communist Party of India;
    4. 4Communist Party of India (Marxist).
    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsIndustrial relations concepts
  108. Q108

    The provision for constituting an 'Expert Committee' finds place under which one among the following legislations?

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsWomen, child and prohibitive laws
  109. Q109

    Which one of the following is provided under the Third Schedule of the Factories Act, 1948?

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsWorking conditions laws
  110. Q110

    Under the provisions of the Mines Act, 1952, the Special Officer can enter a mine for the purpose of surveying, levelling and measuring, after giving prior notice to the Manager at least how many days in advance?

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsWorking conditions laws
  111. Q111

    Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, every employer of an establishment has to maintain the registers and records regarding the wages paid and deductions made, if any, from the wages, and preserve the same from the date of last entry for a period of

    Industrial Relations and Labour LawsWage-related laws
  112. Q112

    There are seven hemispherical containers of radius R metres each and each of them is fully filled with water. The water in these is transferred to a hemispherical container of radius equal to 1.5 times of R such that a maximum number of smaller containers get emptied out. How many smaller containers remain fully filled when the larger container gets fully filled?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system and arithmetic
  113. Q113

    What is the length of the radius of the circle that passes through the points (0, 0), (0, 3) and (2, 0)?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system and arithmetic
  114. Q114

    Suppose that x and y are distinct variables that take values from (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6). What is the probability that the value of the expression xy+x+y is even?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsAlgebra and data interpretation
  115. Q115

    Suppose that a, b > 0. If the equation x² + ax + b = 0 has real roots, namely α and β, then which one of the following is correct?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsAlgebra and data interpretation
  116. Q116

    The ages of Mr. Kumar and his son are in the ratio 5:3. Fifteen years back this ratio was 2 :1. What was the age (in years) of Mr. Kumar when his son was born?

    General Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and StatisticsNumber system and arithmetic
  117. Q117

    In a business firm, assets of the business are valued on the basis of their intrinsic value rather than realizable value. This accounting is based on

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceAccounting concepts and conventions
  118. Q118

    Following is the Trial Balance of a firm as on 31-12-2022: The additional bad debts during the year are 2,00,000. The firm has a policy of maintaining a provision for doubtful debts equal to 10% of the trade receivables' balances. The total amount to be charged to Profit and Loss A/c (for the year ending 31-12-2022) for bad debts written off and provision created will

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceRecording transactions
  119. Q119

    Which of the following is not a major consideration in the selection and application of accounting policies?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceAccounting concepts and conventions
  120. Q120

    Consider the following information: Which one of the following is the value of inventory on January 31 under perpetual inventory system using Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) method?

    General Accounting Principles, Auditing and InsuranceRecording transactions