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UPSC EPFO · Solved paper

EPFO 2004 — UPSC EPFO APFC 2002

All 120 questions, textbook-style — tap “Show answer” on any question to reveal the correct option and explanation.

  1. Q1

    Directions (For the following 5 items): In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

    1. S1 : We Indians by nature are extremely emotional.

    S6 : What must be appreciated is that none of the members of the Indian team has reacted to this mind game utterance of Hayden.

    P : Had the political parties in India not been busy in fighting among themselves, they would have asked the Central Government to refuse visa to Hayden.

    Q : Statisticians are working overtime to prove how our players have not been selfish.

    R : Suddenly Hayden has become a villain.

    S : Without realizing Hayden's intent in calling sub-continent players selfish, we have reacted angrily.

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  2. Q2

    2. S1 : In the roll call of human history, the sleepy capital town of Madhya Pradesh is indelibly linked with one of the world's worst man-made catastrophes.

    S6 : Industries across the globe became less complacent and began tightening their safety protocols.

    P : More than 2,000 died instantly.

    Q : On the night of December 3, 1984, a poisonous grey cloud spread out from the Union Carbide Plant in Bhopal, suffocating more than three lakhs of its unsuspecting residents.

    R : The disaster shook the world, especially when hindsight revealed that almost all safety regulations had been flouted by the plant.

    S : The rest were doomed to wheeze, hobble and gasp their way through life, their organs "eaten up" by the deadly combination of gases that leaked out of the plant.

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  3. Q3

    3. S1 : From an importer of milk powder to the world's largest milk producer.

    S6 : And to think that it began as a simple experiment in a village in Gujarat only in the 1960s.

    P : Operation Flood is arguably India's biggest and most successful revolution since the Quit India Movement.

    Q : India's Operation Flood has come a long way from the days when even baby food was imported to producing 84 million tonnes a year.

    R : From abject desperation to becoming a global player in the dairy sector.

    S : From a mere few villagers and a 275-litre processing plant to an operation spread across 23 States, 170 Districts and 90,000 Village Cooperatives.

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  4. Q4

    4. S1 : One of the ironies of the Indian economy's consistent under-performance is that it has been planned.

    S6 : As planning prospered, regional imbalances widened and competitiveness and free enterprise were crushed—defeating the fundamental purpose of planned development.

    P : It is another matter that in each of the nine Five-Year Plans, barring the first, more targets were missed than met.

    Q : Within two months of India becoming a Republic, the Planning Commission was set up to prepare a blueprint for India's future, roughly once in five years.

    R : Yet the process of planning didn't change and excuses were found : wars and droughts in the 1960s, war and oil shocks in the '70s.

    S : Elaborate models were developed, backed by immaculate calculations, on the investments and policies required to achieve the targets.

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  5. Q5

    5. S1 : In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal has fallen on bad times.

    S6 : It is still a source of water—albeit unpotable—for the thirsty Kodai.

    P : Trouble started when the focus was shifted from Ooty to Kodai in the mid 80s.

    Q : The once pristine surroundings have been destroyed by construction that paid scant respect to the ecological sensitivity of the area.

    R : Commercial forces took over the hill station and large-scale building activities commenced around the artificial lake created in the 1800s.

    S : There is large-scale deforestation as well.

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  6. Q6

    Directions (For the following 5 items): In the following items some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

    6. War minus shooting

    P : but there was nothing to suggest any

    Q : was how cricket between India and Pakistan

    R : increase of animosity between the players or the spectators

    S : was visualized before the first ball was bowled,

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  7. Q7

    7. In 1997,

    P : NASA fact-finding mission on microgravity

    Q : by becoming the first Indian woman to rocket into space on a

    R : to reach out for the stars, created history

    S : Kalpana Chawla, a Karnal girl who wanted

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  8. Q8

    8. That so

    P : suggests that there are certain cultural resources,

    Q : many Indians excel as expatriates

    R : that enable them to succeed while living away from home

    S : perhaps unique to Indians,

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  9. Q9

    9. The advent

    P : we entertained and informed ourselves

    Q : of satellite television was a silent

    R : and completely changed the way

    S : revolution which created a whole new industry

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  10. Q10

    10. The President

    P : the aspirations of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes

    Q : with political parties, industry and other bodies

    R : revealed that the Government would initiate a dialogue

    S : on how best the private sector could fulfil

    The correct sequence should be :

    General EnglishSentence Arrangement
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  11. Q11

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

    Passage

    Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.

    The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most other liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climates, would be notably absent.

    Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.

    11. Which one of the following is correct?

    According to the passage, the hydrosphere is not

    General EnglishReading Comprehension
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  12. Q12

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

    Passage

    Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.

    The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most other liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climates, would be notably absent.

    Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.

    12. What is the reason that fish can survive in the oceans?

    General EnglishReading Comprehension
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  13. Q13

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

    Passage

    Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.

    The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most other liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climates, would be notably absent.

    Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.

    13. What is the author's main purpose in the passage given above?

    General EnglishReading Comprehension
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  14. Q14

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

    Passage

    Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.

    The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most other liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climates, would be notably absent.

    Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.

    14. What is the reason that climatic extremes are prevented in nature?

    General EnglishReading Comprehension
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  15. Q15

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

    Passage

    Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.

    The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most other liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climates, would be notably absent.

    Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.

    15. Which of the following characteristics of water does the author mention in the passage?

    1. 1Water expands when it is frozen
    2. 2Water is used as a condensing medium for thermal power plants
    3. 3Water is a good solvent

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    General EnglishReading Comprehension
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  16. Q16

    ANTONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    16. OUTLANDISH

    General EnglishAntonyms
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  17. Q17

    ANTONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    17. SCANTY

    General EnglishAntonyms
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  18. Q18

    ANTONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    18. PROPENSITY

    General EnglishAntonyms
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  19. Q19

    ANTONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    19. RECTITUDE

    General EnglishAntonyms
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  20. Q20

    ANTONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    20. PONTIFICATE

    General EnglishAntonyms
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  21. Q21

    SYNONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    21. COMMISERATION

    General EnglishSynonyms
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  22. Q22

    SYNONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    22. SLIPSHOD

    General EnglishSynonyms
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  23. Q23

    SYNONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    23. COGENT

    General EnglishSynonyms
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  24. Q24

    SYNONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    24. PONDEROUS

    General EnglishSynonyms
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  25. Q25

    SYNONYMS

    Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    25. MASQUERADE

    General EnglishSynonyms
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  26. Q26

    PART—B 26. Match List–I (Commission/Committee) with List–II (Chairman) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Commission/Committee):

    1. AEconomic Reforms Commission;
    2. BCommission on Centre-State Relations;
    3. CAdministrative Reforms Commission;
    4. DCommittee on the Prevention of Corruption.

    List II (Chairman):

    1. 1R. S. Sarkaria;
    2. 2K. Hanumanthaiya;
    3. 3L. K. Jha;
    4. 4K. Santhanam;
    5. 5D. S. Kothari.
    PolityCommissions and Committees
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  27. Q27

    27. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The first report of the Administrative Reforms Commission recommended the creation of Lok Pal and Lok Ayukta in India.
    2. 2Different articles under the Constitution of India provide for setting up the Union Public Service Commission, the Planning Commission and the Vigilance Commission.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    PolityCommissions and Committees
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  28. Q28

    28. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1Money Bill can be introduced in any House of Parliament.
    2. 2If any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is final.
    3. 3Vote of Credit enables a grant to be approved by the Parliament in advance of the detailed examination of various demands presented to it.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    PolityParliament
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  29. Q29

    29. Consider the following statements related to the Indian parliamentary system :

    1. 1If forty or more members support an Adjournment Motion, only then the related matter can be taken up for discussion.
    2. 2Under an Adjournment Motion, even a sub judice matter can be taken up for discussion.
    3. 3Under Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the Union Finance Minister causes to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament and 'Annual Financial Statement' for each financial year.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    PolityParliament
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  30. Q30

    30. Match List–I (Institute) with List–II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Institute):

    1. AIndian Institute of Public Administration;
    2. BV. V. Giri National Labour Institute;
    3. CNational Institute of Financial Management;
    4. DNational Law School of India University.

    List II (Location):

    1. 1Faridabad;
    2. 2Bangalore;
    3. 3NOIDA;
    4. 4Mumbai;
    5. 5Delhi.
    General StudiesInstitutions
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  31. Q31

    31. Where is the Holy Shrine of Imam Ali in Najaf located?

    General StudiesWorld Geography
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  32. Q32

    32. Why was the region of Darfur of Sudan in news recently?

    Current AffairsInternational
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  33. Q33

    33. Which country among the following is the biggest producer of cotton?

    General StudiesGeography
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  34. Q34

    34. Which one of the following is a super-cooled liquid?

    General SciencePhysics
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  35. Q35

    35. Why does bleeding occur through nose in high mountainous regions?

    General ScienceBiology
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  36. Q36

    36. Which of the following is detected and estimated by the 'Pollution Check' carried out on motor cars at service stations?

    General ScienceEnvironment
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  37. Q37

    37. Which one of the following causes small air bubbles in water which is stored in a glass vessel, to appear to shine with a silvery luster?

    General SciencePhysics
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  38. Q38

    38. Weight of a body on the surface of the earth is W1. The weight of the same body is W2 at a height of 500 metres above the surface, and W3 at a depth of 500 metres below the surface of the earth. Which one of the following is the correct relation?

    General SciencePhysics
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  39. Q39

    39. Which one of the following is not a vitamin?

    General ScienceBiology
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  40. Q40

    40. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    1. aThe deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness
    2. bPain in the muscles and joints along with fatigue, loss of weight and poor wound healing are the symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin C
    3. cBleeding gums and loosening of teeth are symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin B1
    4. dThe deficiency of Vitamin B5 can cause inflammation of skin, memory disorder and diarrhea
    General ScienceBiology
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  41. Q41

    41. Which one of the following elements is not naturally found in human beings?

    General ScienceBiology
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  42. Q42

    42. What is the number of triangles that can be formed whose vertices are at the vertices of an octagon but have only one side common with that of the octagon?

    MathematicsCombinatorics
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  43. Q43

    43. A letter is taken out at random from the word 'ASSAM' and a letter is taken out at random from the word 'NAGALAND'. What is the probability that the two letters are the same?

    MathematicsProbability
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  44. Q44

    44. A set of 5 parallel lines is intersected by another set of 4 parallel lines so as to form a number of parallelograms. How many parallelograms can be formed?

    MathematicsCombinatorics
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  45. Q45

    45. Three dice are rolled. What is the probability that at least one die will show 6?

    MathematicsProbability
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  46. Q46

    46. How many numbers are there between 999 and 10000 such that at least one of their digits is 5?

    MathematicsCombinatorics
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  47. Q47

    47. Match List–I (Wildlife Sanctuary) with List–II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Wildlife Sanctuary):

    1. ABhitar Kanika;
    2. BPachmarhi;
    3. CPocharam;
    4. DSharavathi.

    List II (State):

    1. 1Andhra Pradesh;
    2. 2Karnataka;
    3. 3Madhya Pradesh;
    4. 4Orissa;
    5. 5Uttar Pradesh.
    General StudiesEnvironment
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  48. Q48

    48. What was the total expenditure on education both by the Central and State Governments during the year 2002–03 as an approximate percentage of the Gross Domestic Product?

    EconomyPublic Finance
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  49. Q49

    49. Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Organisation :

    1. 1In the General Assembly of the UNO, no member-nation has veto power.
    2. 2In the Security Council, all permanent members must vote in the affirmative if a resolution is to pass.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    General StudiesInternational Organisations
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  50. Q50

    50. Consider the following statements with reference to the Census 2001 of India :

    1. 1For the first time, the country has witnessed a faster growth in female literacy compared to that of males during the decade 1991–2001.
    2. 2During the decade 1991–2001, the rural-urban literacy gap continued to diverge.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    General StudiesDemographics
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  51. Q51

    51. Four different toys are to be distributed among two children such that each child gets at least one toy. In how many different ways can this be done?

    MathematicsCombinatorics
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  52. Q52

    52. Consider the following statements related to the World War II :

    1. 1Germany attacked the US naval base at Pearl Harbour.
    2. 2Winston Churchill was the British Prime Minister during the World War II.
    3. 3The Versailles Treaty which is generally cited as one of the main causes of the World War II was signed just before the World War II in 1939.
    4. 4Franklin Roosevelt was the President of the United States of America when atom bombs were dropped over the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    General StudiesWorld History
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  53. Q53

    53. Match List–I (Railway Zone) with List–II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Railway Zone):

    1. AEast-Central Railway;
    2. BNorth-Western Railway;
    3. CNorth-Central Railway;
    4. DSouth-Western Railway.

    List II (Headquarters):

    1. 1Hubli;
    2. 2Allahabad;
    3. 3Hajipur;
    4. 4Jabalpur;
    5. 5Jaipur.
    General StudiesIndian Railways
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  54. Q54

    54. Match List–I (Produce) with List–II (Major Producer State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Produce):

    1. ARubber;
    2. BSoyabean;
    3. CGroundnut;
    4. DWheat.

    List II (Major Producer State):

    1. 1Andhra Pradesh;
    2. 2Tamil Nadu;
    3. 3Madhya Pradesh;
    4. 4Kerala;
    5. 5Uttar Pradesh.
    General StudiesAgriculture
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  55. Q55

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A; (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A; (c) A is true but R is false; (d) A is false but R is true. 55.

    Assertion (A)Recently, the four public sector general insurance companies have launched a community-based 'Universal Health Insurance Scheme'.
    Reason (R)According to the Constitution of India, the task of promoting public health primarily rests with the Union Government.
    General StudiesGovernment Schemes
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  56. Q56

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A; (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A; (c) A is true but R is false; (d) A is false but R is true. 56.

    Assertion (A)In its Global Development Finance Report 2004, the World Bank has categorised India as a less indebted country for the year 2002.
    Reason (R)During the last decade, India's outstanding external debt has considerably reduced.
    EconomyExternal Sector
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  57. Q57

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A; (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A; (c) A is true but R is false; (d) A is false but R is true. 57.

    Assertion (A)The salinity of the open seas is very high compared to that of inland seas.
    Reason (R)The water of rivers flowing into open seas contains dissolved salts.
    General ScienceGeography
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  58. Q58

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A; (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A; (c) A is true but R is false; (d) A is false but R is true. 58.

    Assertion (A)During the British rule, the Congress Ministers resigned in 1939 in all the provinces where they were in office.
    Reason (R)Congress wanted fresh elections as it was frustrated with Jinnah's campaign of two-nation theory.
    Modern HistoryFreedom Movement
    Open full question
  59. Q59

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A; (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A; (c) A is true but R is false; (d) A is false but R is true. 59.

    Assertion (A)Aurangzeb released Shahu from the prison shortly before Aurangzeb died in 1707.
    Reason (R)Zulfiqar pointed out that Shahu's return to his Kingdom would cause a division among the Marathas who would thus be disabled from plundering the imperial territories.
    Medieval HistoryMughals-Marathas
    Open full question
  60. Q60

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A; (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A; (c) A is true but R is false; (d) A is false but R is true. 60.

    Assertion (A)Glycerol is a constituent of shaving cream.
    Reason (R)Glycerol is an antiseptic.
    General ScienceChemistry
    Open full question
  61. Q61

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A; (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A; (c) A is true but R is false; (d) A is false but R is true. 61.

    Assertion (A)Phenol is commonly used as a disinfectant.
    Reason (R)Phenol is not harmful to living human tissues even at a very high concentration.
    General ScienceChemistry
    Open full question
  62. Q62

    62. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the given Bhakti Saints?

    Medieval HistoryBhakti Movement
    Open full question
  63. Q63

    63. Match List–I (Persons) with List–II (Writings) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Persons):

    1. AAsvaghosha;
    2. BNagarjuna;
    3. CPatanjali;
    4. DRamanuja.

    List II (Writings):

    1. 1Buddha Charita;
    2. 2Madhyamika Sutra;
    3. 3Vedanta Sangraha;
    4. 4Yogasutra.
    Ancient HistoryLiterature
    Open full question
  64. Q64

    64. Match List–I (Indian Kings) with List–II (Dynasty) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Indian Kings):

    1. AKarikala;
    2. BRudradaman I;
    3. CMilinda;
    4. DKanishka.

    List II (Dynasty):

    1. 1Bactria-Greek;
    2. 2Chola;
    3. 3Chalukya;
    4. 4Kushan;
    5. 5Shaka.
    Ancient HistoryDynasties
    Open full question
  65. Q65

    65. Consider the following statements :

    India had Plan Holiday during 1966–69 due to

    1. 1Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965.
    2. 2severe drought for two successive years.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    EconomyPlanning
    Open full question
  66. Q66

    66. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1Dadra and Nagar Haveli which merged with the Indian Union in 1961 were ruled by the Portuguese.
    2. 2Both Pondicherry and Chandernagore were ruled by the French.
    3. 3Goa got its freedom in 1961.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Modern HistoryIntegration of Princely States
    Open full question
  67. Q67

    67. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The average population density of India is between 600–700 persons per square kilometre.
    2. 22002–2007 is the duration of the Tenth Five-Year Plan.
    3. 3Installed electricity generation capacity in India is in excess of 2 lakh Megawatt.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    General StudiesIndia Facts
    Open full question
  68. Q68

    68. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the President of India.
    2. 2The Delhi Police and Municipal Corporation of Delhi do not come under the administrative purview of the Delhi Government.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    PolityUnion Territories
    Open full question
  69. Q69

    69. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The Legislative Assembly of a State cannot have more than 450 and not less than 50 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies.
    2. 2The number of members of Legislative Council of a State cannot exceed one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly of that State subject to a minimum of 40.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    PolityState Legislature
    Open full question
  70. Q70

    70. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1In India, intensity of cropping is high in the States of the peninsular plateau.
    2. 2In India, the States of Punjab and Haryana have the highest proportion of the net sown area to total geographical area.
    3. 3South-west Monsoon season is termed as the Kharif season of crops.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    General StudiesAgriculture
    Open full question
  71. Q71

    71. Match List–I (Country) with List–II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Country):

    1. ABahamas;
    2. BBelize;
    3. CMacedonia;
    4. DGabon.

    List II (Location):

    1. 1Europe;
    2. 2North America;
    3. 3North Atlantic Ocean;
    4. 4Africa;
    5. 5South America.
    General StudiesWorld Geography
    Open full question
  72. Q72

    72. Going from the West of the United States of America to its East, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given major American cities?

    General StudiesWorld Geography
    Open full question
  73. Q73

    73. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are two States with maximum population of the Scheduled Castes.
    2. 2Punjab has the highest ratio of the Scheduled Caste population to its total population.
    3. 3There was a provision for setting up a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the Article 338 of the Constitution of India. However by a Constitutional Amendment Act, separate National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and National Commission for the Scheduled Tribes have been set up.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    General StudiesSocial Justice
    Open full question
  74. Q74

    74. Match List–I (Beach Resort) with List–II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Beach Resort):

    1. ADigha;
    2. BCovelong;
    3. CCherai;
    4. DMurud-Janjira.

    List II (State):

    1. 1Kerala;
    2. 2West Bengal;
    3. 3Maharashtra;
    4. 4Tamil Nadu.
    General StudiesIndian Geography
    Open full question
  75. Q75

    75. Where are the maximum numbers of major ports located in India?

    General StudiesIndian Geography
    Open full question
  76. Q76

    76. Match List–I (Historical Site) with List–II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Historical Site):

    1. AShore temple;
    2. BBhimbetka;
    3. CKesava temple (Hoysala Monuments);
    4. DHampi.

    List II (State):

    1. 1Karnataka;
    2. 2Tamil Nadu;
    3. 3Kerala;
    4. 4Madhya Pradesh;
    5. 5Rajasthan.
    Ancient HistoryArt and Architecture
    Open full question
  77. Q77

    77. During the World War II, Indian soldiers fought heroically in the Battle at Monte Cassino. Where is Monte Cassino located?

    General StudiesWorld History
    Open full question
  78. Q78

    78. A stadium has 10 gates. In how many different ways can 3 persons enter the stadium?

    MathematicsCombinatorics
    Open full question
  79. Q79

    79. At the conclusion of a party, a total number of 28 handshakes was exchanged. Every person in the party shook hands with every other person who attended the party. What was the total number of persons who attended the party?

    MathematicsCombinatorics
    Open full question
  80. Q80

    80. Amit has 7 friends whom he wishes to invite to a dinner. Out of his 7 friends, 1 or more may accept the invitation. In how many different ways can Amit's 7 friends attend the party?

    MathematicsCombinatorics
    Open full question
  81. Q81

    81. There are three envelopes with three different addresses written on them. Three letters are to be enclosed in these three envelopes such that one letter goes inside one envelope without seeing the address written on any envelope. What is the probability that each of the three letters goes into the envelope with correct address written on it?

    MathematicsProbability
    Open full question
  82. Q82

    82. A person and his wife appear in the interview for the two vacancies of a post. The probability of the selection of the husband and that of the wife are 1/7 and 1/5, respectively. What is the probability that only one of them will be selected?

    MathematicsProbability
    Open full question
  83. Q83

    83. What is the nth term of the series √3, √6, 2√3, ...?

    MathematicsSequences
    Open full question
  84. Q84

    84. The length of a rectangle is reduced by 20% and breadth is kept constant, and the new figure that is formed is a square.

    Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The area of square is 25% less than the area of rectangle.
    2. 2The perimeter of square is approximately 11% less than the perimeter of rectangle.
    3. 3The diagonal of square is approximately 12% less than the diagonal of rectangle.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    MathematicsMensuration
    Open full question
  85. Q85

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500; 1993 inflows ~1500/approvals ~2500; 1994 inflows ~3500/approvals ~2800; 1995 inflows ~2000/approvals ~9800; 1996 inflows ~2000/approvals ~8000. Graph 2 — 'Sector-wise Foreign Investment approved for 1996' (pie): SAARC 2%, ASEAN 3%, EU 23%, NAFTA 35%, OTHER 37%.

    85. What is the contribution of EU in the foreign investment inflows for the year 1996 in US $ Mn.?

    MathematicsData Interpretation
    Open full question
  86. Q86

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500; 1993 inflows ~1500/approvals ~2500; 1994 inflows ~3500/approvals ~2800; 1995 inflows ~2000/approvals ~9800; 1996 inflows ~2000/approvals ~8000. Graph 2 — 'Sector-wise Foreign Investment approved for 1996' (pie): SAARC 2%, ASEAN 3%, EU 23%, NAFTA 35%, OTHER 37%.

    86. What are the foreign investment approvals from SAARC, ASEAN and EU combined together in the year 1996 (in US $ Mn.)?

    MathematicsData Interpretation
    Open full question
  87. Q87

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500; 1993 inflows ~1500/approvals ~2500; 1994 inflows ~3500/approvals ~2800; 1995 inflows ~2000/approvals ~9800; 1996 inflows ~2000/approvals ~8000. Graph 2 — 'Sector-wise Foreign Investment approved for 1996' (pie): SAARC 2%, ASEAN 3%, EU 23%, NAFTA 35%, OTHER 37%.

    87. If the net foreign investment inflows for the year 1997 were to grow by 20% and if the proportion of inflows was to remain the same as in case of the approvals for the year 1996, what would be the foreign investment inflows from NAFTA (in US $ Mn.)?

    MathematicsData Interpretation
    Open full question
  88. Q88

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500; 1993 inflows ~1500/approvals ~2500; 1994 inflows ~3500/approvals ~2800; 1995 inflows ~2000/approvals ~9800; 1996 inflows ~2000/approvals ~8000. Graph 2 — 'Sector-wise Foreign Investment approved for 1996' (pie): SAARC 2%, ASEAN 3%, EU 23%, NAFTA 35%, OTHER 37%.

    88. In which year is the ratio of foreign investment approvals to foreign investment inflows highest?

    MathematicsData Interpretation
    Open full question
  89. Q89

    89. Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river Godavari?

    General StudiesIndian Geography
    Open full question
  90. Q90

    90. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

    1. aThe height of the Western half of the Himalayas is greater than that of the Eastern half
    2. bThe Himalayas are young fold mountains
    3. cThe Shivalik ranges are made of unconsolidated river deposits
    4. dThe Himalayas are wide in Kashmir and become narrow towards the East
    General StudiesIndian Geography
    Open full question
  91. Q91

    91. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

    1. aSpring tides occur on the full moon day
    2. bNeap tides occur on the new moon day only
    3. cThe West coast of India experiences tides four times a day
    4. dTides do not occur in the gulfs
    General ScienceGeography
    Open full question
  92. Q92

    92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    City : River

    AhmedabadSabarmati
    HyderabadMusi
    LucknowGomti
    SuratNarmada
    General StudiesIndian Geography
    Open full question
  93. Q93

    93. Match List–I (Famous Place) with List–II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Famous Place):

    1. AAlexandria;
    2. BBlackpool Pleasure Beach;
    3. CConstantinople;
    4. DFlorence.

    List II (Country):

    1. 1Turkey;
    2. 2Great Britain;
    3. 3Italy;
    4. 4Greece;
    5. 5Egypt.
    General StudiesWorld Geography
    Open full question
  94. Q94

    94. Match List–I (Institute) with List–II (City) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Institute):

    1. ARashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth;
    2. BMaharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda Vidya Pratishthan;
    3. CCentral Institute of Indian Languages;
    4. DCentral Institute of English and Foreign Languages.

    List II (City):

    1. 1Hyderabad;
    2. 2Varanasi;
    3. 3Mysore;
    4. 4Tirupati;
    5. 5Ujjain.
    General StudiesInstitutions
    Open full question
  95. Q95

    95. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1Kaziranga National Park is a World Heritage Site recognized by the UNESCO.
    2. 2Kaziranga National Park is a home to sloth bear and hoolock gibbon.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    General StudiesEnvironment
    Open full question
  96. Q96

    96. Who among the following are the Bharat Ratna recipients?

    1. 1Amartya Sen
    2. 2Gulzari Lal Nanda
    3. 3M. S. Swaminathan
    4. 4Satyajit Ray

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    General StudiesAwards
    Open full question
  97. Q97

    97. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The members of the Employees' Provident Fund and exempted Provident Funds are eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked Insurance Scheme.
    2. 2Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 was introduced for the industrial workers.
    3. 3Coverage under the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is restricted to establishments employing 20 or more persons.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Labour LawsEPF
    Open full question
  98. Q98

    98. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    1. aThe Special Marriage Act, 1954 extends to all the States and Union Territories of India
    2. bThe Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs in addition to Hindus
    3. cThe Hindu Succession Act, 1956 recognizes the right of women to inherit property of an intestate equally with men
    4. dMuslims, Christians and Parsis in India have no adoption laws and can take a child under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 only under foster care
    PolityPersonal Laws
    Open full question
  99. Q99

    99. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in Lok Sabha only.
    2. 2A Bill providing for the formation of new States and for the alteration of boundaries or names of existing States in India can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President of India.
    3. 3In India, a Bill seeking to amend the representation of States in Parliament has to be passed by a simple majority of both Houses of Parliament.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    PolityConstitution
    Open full question
  100. Q100

    100. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

    The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by the Parliament for a period

    PolityParliament
    Open full question
  101. Q101

    101. Consider the following statements :

    1. 1The Indian Parliament is not sovereign and the legislation passed by it is subject to judicial review.
    2. 2In India, the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by the courts.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    PolityConstitution
    Open full question
  102. Q102

    102. Match List–I (Outstanding Sportspersons at the Athens Olympics) with List–II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Outstanding Sportspersons at the Athens Olympics):

    1. AMichael Phelps;
    2. BIan Thorpe;
    3. CYulia Nesterenko;
    4. DNicolas Massu.

    List II (Country):

    1. 1Belarus;
    2. 2United States of America;
    3. 3Australia;
    4. 4Chile;
    5. 5Sweden.
    Current AffairsSports
    Open full question
  103. Q103

    103. Who won the 100-metre race for men in the Athens Olympics in August, 2004?

    Current AffairsSports
    Open full question
  104. Q104

    104. Who among the following Indian film directors/actors was honoured with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in year 2004?

    Current AffairsAwards
    Open full question
  105. Q105

    105. Match List–I (Battles) with List–II (Fought Between) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Battles):

    1. ABattle of Chausa;
    2. BBattle of Ghagra;
    3. CBattle of Kanwah;
    4. DBattle of Talikota.

    List II (Fought Between):

    1. 1Babar and Rajputs;
    2. 2Humayun and Sher Khan;
    3. 3Babar, and Afghans of Bihar and Bengal;
    4. 4Vijaynagar ruler and the Deccan Sultanates.
    Medieval HistoryBattles
    Open full question
  106. Q106

    106. When Akbar besieged the Fort of Chitor, who among the following defended it for four months?

    Medieval HistoryMughals
    Open full question
  107. Q107

    107. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    1. aLord Wellesley set up the first three Indian Universities
    2. bLord Dalhousie introduced telegraph in India
    3. cLord Ripon introduced a system of local self-government both for towns and country-side areas
    4. dLord Curzon presided over the Delhi Durbar of 1903
    Modern HistoryBritish Rule
    Open full question
  108. Q108

    108. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the given dynasties of Delhi Sultanate?

    Medieval HistoryDelhi Sultanate
    Open full question
  109. Q109

    109. Consider the following statements :

    According to the Mountbatten Plan

    1. 1the Union of India and Pakistan were to be granted freedom not later than June, 1948.
    2. 2the Legislative Assembly of Sindh was to decide whether it wanted to join the Constituent Assembly of India or not.
    3. 3Baluchistan was to decide whether it wanted to stay with the Indian Union or become separate.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Modern HistoryPartition
    Open full question
  110. Q110

    110. Why did Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das form a separate group known as Swaraj Party within the Congress?

    Modern HistoryFreedom Movement
    Open full question
  111. Q111

    111. In the year 1919, what was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to warn the Viceroy that a countrywide Satyagraha would be launched?

    Modern HistoryFreedom Movement
    Open full question
  112. Q112

    112. Who among the following introduced the celebration of Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji Festivals to bring the Indian society together and inspire patriotic feelings among the people?

    Modern HistoryFreedom Movement
    Open full question
  113. Q113

    113. There are four persons A, B, C and D. The total amount of money with A and B together is equal to the total amount of money with C and D together. But the total amount of money with B and D together is more than the amount of money with A and C together. The amount of money with A is more than that with B. Who has the least amount of money?

    MathematicsLogical Reasoning
    Open full question
  114. Q114

    114. A printer uses a total number of 4893 digits in order to number all the pages of his book. He starts with the digit 1 for the first page of the book. How many pages does the book have?

    MathematicsNumber System
    Open full question
  115. Q115

    Directions (For the next two items): Based on the information given below, answer the two items which follow it: Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10 are reserved for these 5 married couples. Each of the five ladies sits on the seat immediately to the left of her husband. (i) The couple E and S occupy the seats at the extreme right. (ii) C, who is not sitting at the extreme left and Q, who is not sitting on the seat number 2, are not husband and wife. (iii) B and R are celebrating their wedding anniversary and hence are sitting at the centre. (iv) A and T are not husband and wife. (v) D is sitting on the seat number 3.

    115. Who is sitting on the seat number 7?

    MathematicsLogical Reasoning
    Open full question
  116. Q116

    Directions (For the next two items): Based on the information given below, answer the two items which follow it: Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10 are reserved for these 5 married couples. Each of the five ladies sits on the seat immediately to the left of her husband. (i) The couple E and S occupy the seats at the extreme right. (ii) C, who is not sitting at the extreme left and Q, who is not sitting on the seat number 2, are not husband and wife. (iii) B and R are celebrating their wedding anniversary and hence are sitting at the centre. (iv) A and T are not husband and wife. (v) D is sitting on the seat number 3.

    116. If in the last condition (v), it is stated that D sits on the seat number 7, then who will sit on the seat number 4?

    MathematicsLogical Reasoning
    Open full question
  117. Q117

    117. A 2-member committee is to be constituted out of 4 men and 2 women. What is the probability that a committee thus formed will have exactly one woman?

    MathematicsProbability
    Open full question
  118. Q118

    118. Match List–I (Distinguished Women) with List–II (Known As) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Distinguished Women):

    1. AMaria Sharapova;
    2. BAung San Suu Kyi;
    3. CAsma Jahangir;
    4. DNorah Jones.

    List II (Known As):

    1. 1Human rights activist;
    2. 2Political leader;
    3. 3Singer;
    4. 4Sportsperson.
    General StudiesPersons
    Open full question
  119. Q119

    119. Match List–I (Author) with List–II (Book) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Author):

    1. ABill Clinton;
    2. BHenry Kissinger;
    3. CNelson Mandela;
    4. DHillary Clinton.

    List II (Book):

    1. 1Between Hope and History;
    2. 2Living History;
    3. 3Diplomacy;
    4. 4Long Walk to Freedom.
    General StudiesBooks and Authors
    Open full question
  120. Q120

    120. Match List–I (Distinguished Women) with List–II (Known As/Area) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

    List I (Distinguished Women):

    1. AShanta Sinha;
    2. BKalpana Lajmi;
    3. CRomila Thapar;
    4. DRadha Reddy.

    List II (Known As/Area):

    1. 1Film Direction;
    2. 2Community Leadership;
    3. 3Dancer;
    4. 4Historian;
    5. 5Business-woman.
    General StudiesPersons
    Open full question

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