UPSC CSE Prelims · Previous Year Questions

UPSC Prelims PYQs 2004

All 120 questions from the UPSC Prelims 2004 paper, tagged by subject and topic.

1. Q1

   Directions (For the following 5 items): In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the sixth sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are…
2. Q2

   2. S1 : In the roll call of human history, the sleepy capital town of Madhya Pradesh is indelibly linked with one of the world's worst man-made catastrophes. S6 : Industries across the globe became less complacent and began tightening their safety protocols. P…
3. Q3

   3. S1 : From an importer of milk powder to the world's largest milk producer. S6 : And to think that it began as a simple experiment in a village in Gujarat only in the 1960s. P : Operation Flood is arguably India's biggest and most successful revolution since…
4. Q4

   4. S1 : One of the ironies of the Indian economy's consistent under-performance is that it has been planned. S6 : As planning prospered, regional imbalances widened and competitiveness and free enterprise were crushed—defeating the fundamental purpose of plann…
5. Q5

   5. S1 : In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal has fallen on bad times. S6 : It is still a source of water—albeit unpotable—for the thirsty Kodai. P : Trouble started when the focus was shifted from Ooty to Kodai in the mid 80s. Q : The once pristine surroundi…
6. Q6

   Directions (For the following 5 items): In the following items some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in…
7. Q7

   7. In 1997, P : NASA fact-finding mission on microgravity Q : by becoming the first Indian woman to rocket into space on a R : to reach out for the stars, created history S : Kalpana Chawla, a Karnal girl who wanted The correct sequence should be :
8. Q8

   8. That so P : suggests that there are certain cultural resources, Q : many Indians excel as expatriates R : that enable them to succeed while living away from home S : perhaps unique to Indians, The correct sequence should be :
9. Q9

   9. The advent P : we entertained and informed ourselves Q : of satellite television was a silent R : and completely changed the way S : revolution which created a whole new industry The correct sequence should be :
10. Q10

    10. The President P : the aspirations of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Q : with political parties, industry and other bodies R : revealed that the Government would initiate a dialogue S : on how best the private sector could fulfil The correct…
11. Q11

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is state…
12. Q12

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is state…
13. Q13

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is state…
14. Q14

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is state…
15. Q15

    Directions (For the following 5 items): The passage given below is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all the five questions following the passage on the basis of what is state…
16. Q16

    ANTONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital…
17. Q17

    ANTONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital…
18. Q18

    ANTONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital…
19. Q19

    ANTONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital…
20. Q20

    ANTONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital…
21. Q21

    SYNONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters…
22. Q22

    SYNONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters…
23. Q23

    SYNONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters…
24. Q24

    SYNONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters…
25. Q25

    SYNONYMS Directions (For the following 5 items): Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters…
26. Q26

    PART—B 26. Match List–I (Commission/Committee) with List–II (Chairman) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Commission/Committee): A. Economic Reforms Commission; B. Commission on Centre-State Relations; C. Administrati…
27. Q27

    27. Consider the following statements : 1. The first report of the Administrative Reforms Commission recommended the creation of Lok Pal and Lok Ayukta in India. 2. Different articles under the Constitution of India provide for setting up the Union Public Serv…
28. Q28

    28. Consider the following statements : 1. Money Bill can be introduced in any House of Parliament. 2. If any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is final. 3. Vote of Credit enabl…
29. Q29

    29. Consider the following statements related to the Indian parliamentary system : 1. If forty or more members support an Adjournment Motion, only then the related matter can be taken up for discussion. 2. Under an Adjournment Motion, even a sub judice matter…
30. Q30

    30. Match List–I (Institute) with List–II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Institute): A. Indian Institute of Public Administration; B. V. V. Giri National Labour Institute; C. National Institute of Finan…
31. Q31

    31. Where is the Holy Shrine of Imam Ali in Najaf located?
32. Q32

    32. Why was the region of Darfur of Sudan in news recently?
33. Q33

    33. Which country among the following is the biggest producer of cotton?
34. Q34

    34. Which one of the following is a super-cooled liquid?
35. Q35

    35. Why does bleeding occur through nose in high mountainous regions?
36. Q36

    36. Which of the following is detected and estimated by the 'Pollution Check' carried out on motor cars at service stations?
37. Q37

    37. Which one of the following causes small air bubbles in water which is stored in a glass vessel, to appear to shine with a silvery luster?
38. Q38

    38. Weight of a body on the surface of the earth is W1. The weight of the same body is W2 at a height of 500 metres above the surface, and W3 at a depth of 500 metres below the surface of the earth. Which one of the following is the correct relation?
39. Q39

    39. Which one of the following is not a vitamin?
40. Q40

    40. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness (b) Pain in the muscles and joints along with fatigue, loss of weight and poor wound healing are the symptoms of the deficiency of Vitamin C (c) Bl…
41. Q41

    41. Which one of the following elements is not naturally found in human beings?
42. Q42

    42. What is the number of triangles that can be formed whose vertices are at the vertices of an octagon but have only one side common with that of the octagon?
43. Q43

    43. A letter is taken out at random from the word 'ASSAM' and a letter is taken out at random from the word 'NAGALAND'. What is the probability that the two letters are the same?
44. Q44

    44. A set of 5 parallel lines is intersected by another set of 4 parallel lines so as to form a number of parallelograms. How many parallelograms can be formed?
45. Q45

    45. Three dice are rolled. What is the probability that at least one die will show 6?
46. Q46

    46. How many numbers are there between 999 and 10000 such that at least one of their digits is 5?
47. Q47

    47. Match List–I (Wildlife Sanctuary) with List–II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Wildlife Sanctuary): A. Bhitar Kanika; B. Pachmarhi; C. Pocharam; D. Sharavathi. List–II (State): 1. Andhra Pradesh; 2. Kar…
48. Q48

    48. What was the total expenditure on education both by the Central and State Governments during the year 2002–03 as an approximate percentage of the Gross Domestic Product?
49. Q49

    49. Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Organisation : 1. In the General Assembly of the UNO, no member-nation has veto power. 2. In the Security Council, all permanent members must vote in the affirmative if a resolution is…
50. Q50

    50. Consider the following statements with reference to the Census 2001 of India : 1. For the first time, the country has witnessed a faster growth in female literacy compared to that of males during the decade 1991–2001. 2. During the decade 1991–2001, the ru…
51. Q51

    51. Four different toys are to be distributed among two children such that each child gets at least one toy. In how many different ways can this be done?
52. Q52

    52. Consider the following statements related to the World War II : 1. Germany attacked the US naval base at Pearl Harbour. 2. Winston Churchill was the British Prime Minister during the World War II. 3. The Versailles Treaty which is generally cited as one of…
53. Q53

    53. Match List–I (Railway Zone) with List–II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Railway Zone): A. East-Central Railway; B. North-Western Railway; C. North-Central Railway; D. South-Western Railway. List…
54. Q54

    54. Match List–I (Produce) with List–II (Major Producer State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Produce): A. Rubber; B. Soyabean; C. Groundnut; D. Wheat. List–II (Major Producer State): 1. Andhra Pradesh; 2. Tamil N…
55. Q55

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Bot…
56. Q56

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Bot…
57. Q57

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Bot…
58. Q58

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Bot…
59. Q59

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Bot…
60. Q60

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Bot…
61. Q61

    Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Bot…
62. Q62

    62. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the given Bhakti Saints?
63. Q63

    63. Match List–I (Persons) with List–II (Writings) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Persons): A. Asvaghosha; B. Nagarjuna; C. Patanjali; D. Ramanuja. List–II (Writings): 1. Buddha Charita; 2. Madhyamika Sutra; 3. Ve…
64. Q64

    64. Match List–I (Indian Kings) with List–II (Dynasty) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Indian Kings): A. Karikala; B. Rudradaman I; C. Milinda; D. Kanishka. List–II (Dynasty): 1. Bactria-Greek; 2. Chola; 3. Chaluky…
65. Q65

    65. Consider the following statements : India had Plan Holiday during 1966–69 due to 1. Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965. 2. severe drought for two successive years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
66. Q66

    66. Consider the following statements : 1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli which merged with the Indian Union in 1961 were ruled by the Portuguese. 2. Both Pondicherry and Chandernagore were ruled by the French. 3. Goa got its freedom in 1961. Which of the statements g…
67. Q67

    67. Consider the following statements : 1. The average population density of India is between 600–700 persons per square kilometre. 2. 2002–2007 is the duration of the Tenth Five-Year Plan. 3. Installed electricity generation capacity in India is in excess of…
68. Q68

    68. Consider the following statements : 1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the President of India. 2. The Delhi Police and Municipal Corporation of Delhi do not come under the administrative purview of the Delhi Government. Which of the statements…
69. Q69

    69. Consider the following statements : 1. The Legislative Assembly of a State cannot have more than 450 and not less than 50 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies. 2. The number of members of Legislative Council of a State cannot e…
70. Q70

    70. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, intensity of cropping is high in the States of the peninsular plateau. 2. In India, the States of Punjab and Haryana have the highest proportion of the net sown area to total geographical area. 3. South-west…
71. Q71

    71. Match List–I (Country) with List–II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Country): A. Bahamas; B. Belize; C. Macedonia; D. Gabon. List–II (Location): 1. Europe; 2. North America; 3. North Atlantic Ocean;…
72. Q72

    72. Going from the West of the United States of America to its East, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given major American cities?
73. Q73

    73. Consider the following statements : 1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are two States with maximum population of the Scheduled Castes. 2. Punjab has the highest ratio of the Scheduled Caste population to its total population. 3. There was a provision for setting u…
74. Q74

    74. Match List–I (Beach Resort) with List–II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Beach Resort): A. Digha; B. Covelong; C. Cherai; D. Murud-Janjira. List–II (State): 1. Kerala; 2. West Bengal; 3. Maharashtra; 4.…
75. Q75

    75. Where are the maximum numbers of major ports located in India?
76. Q76

    76. Match List–I (Historical Site) with List–II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Historical Site): A. Shore temple; B. Bhimbetka; C. Kesava temple (Hoysala Monuments); D. Hampi. List–II (State): 1. Karnataka…
77. Q77

    77. During the World War II, Indian soldiers fought heroically in the Battle at Monte Cassino. Where is Monte Cassino located?
78. Q78

    78. A stadium has 10 gates. In how many different ways can 3 persons enter the stadium?
79. Q79

    79. At the conclusion of a party, a total number of 28 handshakes was exchanged. Every person in the party shook hands with every other person who attended the party. What was the total number of persons who attended the party?
80. Q80

    80. Amit has 7 friends whom he wishes to invite to a dinner. Out of his 7 friends, 1 or more may accept the invitation. In how many different ways can Amit's 7 friends attend the party?
81. Q81

    81. There are three envelopes with three different addresses written on them. Three letters are to be enclosed in these three envelopes such that one letter goes inside one envelope without seeing the address written on any envelope. What is the probability th…
82. Q82

    82. A person and his wife appear in the interview for the two vacancies of a post. The probability of the selection of the husband and that of the wife are 1/7 and 1/5, respectively. What is the probability that only one of them will be selected?
83. Q83

    83. What is the nth term of the series √3, √6, 2√3, ...?
84. Q84

    84. The length of a rectangle is reduced by 20% and breadth is kept constant, and the new figure that is formed is a square. Consider the following statements : 1. The area of square is 25% less than the area of rectangle. 2. The perimeter of square is approxi…
85. Q85

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500;…
86. Q86

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500;…
87. Q87

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500;…
88. Q88

    Directions (For the next four items): Refer to the graphs given below and answer the items that follow. Graph 1 — 'Foreign Investment Approvals and Inflows (US $ Mn.)', 1992–1996 (light bar = inflows, dark bar = approvals): 1992 inflows ~3000/approvals ~1500;…
89. Q89

    89. Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river Godavari?
90. Q90

    90. Which one of the following is not a correct statement? (a) The height of the Western half of the Himalayas is greater than that of the Eastern half (b) The Himalayas are young fold mountains (c) The Shivalik ranges are made of unconsolidated river deposits…
91. Q91

    91. Which one of the following is the correct statement? (a) Spring tides occur on the full moon day (b) Neap tides occur on the new moon day only (c) The West coast of India experiences tides four times a day (d) Tides do not occur in the gulfs
92. Q92

    92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? City : River (a) Ahmedabad : Sabarmati (b) Hyderabad : Musi (c) Lucknow : Gomti (d) Surat : Narmada
93. Q93

    93. Match List–I (Famous Place) with List–II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Famous Place): A. Alexandria; B. Blackpool Pleasure Beach; C. Constantinople; D. Florence. List–II (Country): 1. Turkey; 2. Gre…
94. Q94

    94. Match List–I (Institute) with List–II (City) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Institute): A. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth; B. Maharishi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda Vidya Pratishthan; C. Central Institute of Indian…
95. Q95

    95. Consider the following statements : 1. Kaziranga National Park is a World Heritage Site recognized by the UNESCO. 2. Kaziranga National Park is a home to sloth bear and hoolock gibbon. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
96. Q96

    96. Who among the following are the Bharat Ratna recipients? 1. Amartya Sen 2. Gulzari Lal Nanda 3. M. S. Swaminathan 4. Satyajit Ray Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
97. Q97

    97. Consider the following statements : 1. The members of the Employees' Provident Fund and exempted Provident Funds are eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked Insurance Scheme. 2. Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 was introduced for the industrial workers.…
98. Q98

    98. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The Special Marriage Act, 1954 extends to all the States and Union Territories of India (b) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs in addition to Hindus (c) The Hindu Suc…
99. Q99

    99. Consider the following statements : 1. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in Lok Sabha only. 2. A Bill providing for the formation of new States and for the alteration of boundaries or n…
100. Q100

     100. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The term of Lok Sabha can be extended by the Parliament for a period
101. Q101

     101. Consider the following statements :

     1. 1The Indian Parliament is not sovereign and the legislation passed by it is subject to judicial review.
     2. 2In India, the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by the courts. Which…
102. Q102

     102. Match List–I (Outstanding Sportspersons at the Athens Olympics) with List–II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Outstanding Sportspersons at the Athens Olympics): A. Michael Phelps; B. Ian Thorpe; C. Yu…
103. Q103

     103. Who won the 100-metre race for men in the Athens Olympics in August, 2004?
104. Q104

     104. Who among the following Indian film directors/actors was honoured with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in year 2004?
105. Q105

     105. Match List–I (Battles) with List–II (Fought Between) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Battles): A. Battle of Chausa; B. Battle of Ghagra; C. Battle of Kanwah; D. Battle of Talikota. List–II (Fought Between): 1.…
106. Q106

     106. When Akbar besieged the Fort of Chitor, who among the following defended it for four months?
107. Q107

     107. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Lord Wellesley set up the first three Indian Universities (b) Lord Dalhousie introduced telegraph in India (c) Lord Ripon introduced a system of local self-government both for towns and country-sid…
108. Q108

     108. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the given dynasties of Delhi Sultanate?
109. Q109

     109. Consider the following statements : According to the Mountbatten Plan

     1. 1the Union of India and Pakistan were to be granted freedom not later than June, 1948.
     2. 2the Legislative Assembly of Sindh was to decide whether it wanted to join the Constituent Ass…
110. Q110

     110. Why did Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das form a separate group known as Swaraj Party within the Congress?
111. Q111

     111. In the year 1919, what was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to warn the Viceroy that a countrywide Satyagraha would be launched?
112. Q112

     112. Who among the following introduced the celebration of Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji Festivals to bring the Indian society together and inspire patriotic feelings among the people?
113. Q113

     113. There are four persons A, B, C and D. The total amount of money with A and B together is equal to the total amount of money with C and D together. But the total amount of money with B and D together is more than the amount of money with A and C together.…
114. Q114

     114. A printer uses a total number of 4893 digits in order to number all the pages of his book. He starts with the digit 1 for the first page of the book. How many pages does the book have?
115. Q115

     Directions (For the next two items): Based on the information given below, answer the two items which follow it: Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10…
116. Q116

     Directions (For the next two items): Based on the information given below, answer the two items which follow it: Five ladies A, B, C, D, E go to a cinema hall along with their husbands P, Q, R, S, T (not necessarily in that order). Seats numbered from 1 to 10…
117. Q117

     117. A 2-member committee is to be constituted out of 4 men and 2 women. What is the probability that a committee thus formed will have exactly one woman?
118. Q118

     118. Match List–I (Distinguished Women) with List–II (Known As) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Distinguished Women): A. Maria Sharapova; B. Aung San Suu Kyi; C. Asma Jahangir; D. Norah Jones. List–II (Known As): 1…
119. Q119

     119. Match List–I (Author) with List–II (Book) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Author): A. Bill Clinton; B. Henry Kissinger; C. Nelson Mandela; D. Hillary Clinton. List–II (Book):

     1. 1Between Hope and History;
     2. 2Li…
120. Q120

     120. Match List–I (Distinguished Women) with List–II (Known As/Area) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List–I (Distinguished Women): A. Shanta Sinha; B. Kalpana Lajmi; C. Romila Thapar; D. Radha Reddy. List–II (Known As/Area…