APPSC Group-I · Solved paper

APPSC 2024 — APPSC Group-I Screening Test Paper-I General Studies

All 120 questions, textbook-style — tap “Show answer” on any question to reveal the correct option and explanation.

1. Q1

   Consider the following statements on the late Harappan cultures :

   1. IThe late Harappan cultures are primarily Chalcolithic in which tools of stone and copper are used.
   2. IIThey do not show metal objects requiring complicated casting.
   3. IIIThe Chalcolithic people in the later Harappan phase lived in villages.
   4. IVIn the late Harappan phase at Bhagwanpura in Haryana, burnt bricks were not found.

   Which of the above statements are correct ?

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2. Q2

   Consider the following types of pottery :

   1. IBlack and Red Ware
   2. IIBlack Slipped Ware
   3. IIIPainted Grey Ware
   4. IVRed Ware V. Northern Black Polished Ware

   Which of the above types of pottery were associated with the Later Vedic people ?

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3. Q3

   Identify the incorrect statement on the contributions of Jainism :

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4. Q4

   Match the following : List-I (Mahajanapada): A. Avanti, B. Koshala, C. Vatsa, D. Anga List-II (Capital):

   1. IUjjain,
   2. IIShravasti,
   3. IIIKaushambi,
   4. IVChampa Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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5. Q5

   Consider the following art and architectural forms :

   1. IRock-cut elephant at Dhauli in Orissa
   2. IIYakshi figure from Didarganj near Patna
   3. IIIGreat Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh
   4. IV80-pillared hall at Kumrahar near Patna

   Which of the above art and architectural forms belong to the Mauryan period ?

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6. Q6

   Consider the following items :

   1. ITurban
   2. IITrousers
   3. IIIHeavy long coat
   4. IVHelmet V. Boots Which of the items listed above were introduced by the Shakas and Kushans from Central Asia ?

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7. Q7

   In the Satavahana's inscriptions, the terms 'Katakas' and 'Skandhavaras' mean

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8. Q8

   Consider the following statements :

   1. IDuring the reign of Chandragupta-I, the Sakas were defeated.
   2. IISamudragupta's South Indian conquest did not lead to any permanent annexation.

   Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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9. Q9

   In the Sangam literature, Vellalars were :

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10. Q10

    Match the following : List-I (Pallavan Ruler): A. Sivaskandavarman, B. Vishnugopa, C. Narasimhavarman-I, D. Nandivarman-II List-II (Political event):

    1. ISamudragupta's invasion,
    2. IIKanchi came under the Pallavas,
    3. IIIDefeated by Vikramaditya-II and city of Kanchi was captured,
    4. IVDefeat of Pulakesin-II and destruction of Vatapi city Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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11. Q11

    Which of the following is wrongly matched with respect to Rashtrakutas ?

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12. Q12

    Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Cholas :

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13. Q13

    Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi was built by :

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14. Q14

    The Persian traveller Abdur Razzaq visited Vijayanagara in the reign of :

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15. Q15

    Match the following : List-I (Bhakti Saint): A. Vallabhacharya, B. Tulsidas, C. Sri Chaitanya, D. Tukaram List-II (Area of the movement):

    1. IUttar Pradesh,
    2. IIGujarat,
    3. IIIBengal,
    4. IVMaharashtra Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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16. Q16

    Consider the following statements on Sher Shah's land revenue administration :

    1. ILand was classified into three categories on the basis of produce from the land.
    2. IILand was measured according to a uniform system.
    3. III1/4 of the produce was collected as tax.

    Which of the above statements are correct ?

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17. Q17

    Consider the following Mughal structures :

    1. ITomb of Salim Chishti
    2. IIBuland Darwaza
    3. IIITomb of Humayun
    4. IVJami Masjid

    Which of the above buildings were constructed during the reign of Akbar ?

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18. Q18

    Match the following : List-I (Name of the Ruler): A. Husain Ali Khan, B. Murshid Quli Khan, C. Chin Qilich Khan, D. Safdar Jung List-II (Position of the Ruler):

    1. IOne of the Saiyid brothers,
    2. IIThe ruler of Bengal,
    3. IIIThe Nizam of Hyderabad,
    4. IVThe Nawab of Awadh Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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19. Q19

    Match the following : List-I (Kakatiya ruler): A. Rudradeva, B. Ganapatideva, C. Rudramadevi, D. Prataparudradeva List-II (Event / Contribution):

    1. IShifting the capital from Anamakonda to Orugallu (Warangal),
    2. IIThousand Pillar Temple was built,
    3. IIIMalik Kafur's expedition,
    4. IVMarco Polo's visit to Coastal Andhra Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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20. Q20

    Identify the correct chronology of Later Mughals :

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21. Q21

    In Shivaji's administration, Dabir was :

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22. Q22

    Identify the correct chronology of establishment of French settlements :

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23. Q23

    Consider the following Indian states :

    1. IAwadh
    2. IIJhansi
    3. IIISatara
    4. IVNagpur V. Sindh

    Which of the above states were annexed by the British due to the policy of Doctrine of Lapse ?

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24. Q24

    Identify the wrong matching of poets and their languages in the 18th century :

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25. Q25

    Consider the following statements on the contributions of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar :

    1. IHis great contribution was for the upliftment of women in India.
    2. IIHe organized a powerful movement for the enactment of Widow Remarriage Act.
    3. IIITo propagate his social ideas, he published Sambad Kaumudi, a Bengali weekly newspaper.

    Which of the above statements are correct ?

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26. Q26

    Which of the following statements is incorrect on William Bentinck's reforms ?

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27. Q27

    Consider the following events :

    1. ISwadeshi Movement
    2. IISurat Split
    3. IIILucknow Pact
    4. IVHome Rule Movement

    Which of the above main events took place during the extremist phase ?

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28. Q28

    Consider the following events :

    1. IVisit of Simon Commission to India
    2. IIPurna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session
    3. IIILaunch of Dandi March

    Which of the above main events took place during the tenure of Lord Irwin ?

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29. Q29

    Consider the following Revolutionaries :

    1. IBhagat Singh
    2. IISachindra Nath Sanyal
    3. IIIJogesh Chandra Chatterjee
    4. IVRam Prasad Bismil V. Chandra Shekhar Azad Who among the above founded 'Hindustan Republican Association' in 1924 ?

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30. Q30

    Which of the following is wrongly matched regarding 'Praja Mandals' ?

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31. Q31

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the office of the 'Whip' ?

    1. IAlthough not mentioned in the Constitution of India, the office of the 'Whip' has however been incorporated in the Rules of the House by the 'Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament (Facilities) Act, 1998'.
    2. IIThe role of the Chief Whip of the government party in the Lok Sabha is served by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs.
    3. IIIAll political parties - whether ruling or opposition, will have their own Whips in the Parliament.
    4. IVThe Chief Whip is not responsible to the leader of the House but is responsible only to the leader of the party that has appointed him/her to the office of Chief Whip.

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32. Q32

    In the context of distinctions existing between a Public Bill and a Private Bill, select the statement/statements that is/are valid :

    1. IA Private Bill which has been introduced by a Member of Parliament sitting in the opposition and which has been approved by the House will have to be referred to the law department for consultation.
    2. IIA Public Bill is always introduced in the Parliament by the Minister or a member of the government party.
    3. IIIA Private Bill will not reflect the policy of the government but upon its approval by the House, a Private Bill would have reflected the policy of the government.
    4. IVPublic Bills and Private Bills, regardless of the differences between them, are governed by the same general procedure, and are required to be passed through the same stages in the House.

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33. Q33

    Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have to be mandatorily reserved for the President's consideration ?

    1. IA Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Directive Principles of State Policy.
    2. IIA Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction but which was however not obtained under Article 304.
    3. IIIA Bill that attracts the provisions of Article 288.
    4. IVA Bill seeking to operate a provision that belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries, but which is however repugnant to any Union law.

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34. Q34

    Consider the following statements in connection with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) :

    1. ICAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution but this does not mean that the CAG can be impeached from office in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
    2. IISome public corporations are audited exclusively by private professional auditors, and the CAG may have no involvement at all.
    3. IIIThe CAG can conduct legal, regulatory and propriety audit but not performance audit.
    4. IVThe Constitution of India has not specified any criterion for the appointment of CAG.

    Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

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35. Q35

    In connection with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. IThe GST Council was established as a Statutory body, but it was later turned into a Constitutional federal body by an amendment of the Constitution.
    2. IIThe proceedings of the GST Council will be invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council.
    3. IIIIn the event of any dispute between more than two states over GST issues, the GST Council has to refer the matter to be adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
    4. IVThe GST Council is required to make recommendations to the Centre and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST.

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36. Q36

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India :

    1. IThe Constitution of India has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
    2. IIIn 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023), the Supreme Court has directed the Government to treat the Regional Commissioners on par with the Election Commissioners (other than the Chief Election Commissioner), as far as removal from office is concerned.
    3. IIISince its inception, the Election Commission had functioned as a multi-member body.
    4. IVThe power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of Vice-President of India is vested in the Election Commission.

    Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

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37. Q37

    In the context of Centre - State Relations, which of the following statement/statements are valid ?

    1. IPunchhi Commission had recommended that the procedure that is followed for the removal of President should also be applicable for the impeachment of Governors as well.
    2. IIThe law that is made by the Parliament with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to the State in which President's rule is imposed, cannot be re-enacted by the State Legislature after the President's rule is ended.
    3. IIIThe Sarkaria Commission was not the first to recommend the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
    4. IVOnly the Lok Sabha can pass a resolution declaring that it is necessary in the national interest that the Parliament should make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax.

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38. Q38

    Consider the following statements in connection with the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States :

    1. IThe proceeds of the surcharges that are levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of India, would be shared between the Centre and the States.
    2. IIArticle 268A and Article 272 of the Constitution of India were both repealed by same Constitutional Amendment Act.
    3. IIITax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied by the Centre but collected by the States.
    4. IVThe net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.

    Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

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39. Q39

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct in relation to the Human Rights Commissions in India ?

    1. IThe role to undertake functions relating to human rights in the Union Territory of Ladakh may be conferred upon a State Human Rights Commission by the Central Government.
    2. IIOnly 2 persons can be appointed as members of the National Human Rights Commission under the category of possessing knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
    3. IIIThe President can remove the Chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission on the ground of proved misbehaviour. However, the President has to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in this matter.
    4. IVThe National Human Rights Commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of two years from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.

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40. Q40

    Which of the following statement/statements can be attributed correctly to the exercise of Delimitation ?

    1. IThe principle of 'one man, one vote' reiterates the need for the exercise of Delimitation.
    2. IIThe Government of India can set up a Delimitation Commission for the purpose of delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in a select few States or UTs.
    3. IIIThe Delimitation Commission can only recommend the re-delimitation of territorial Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies but cannot recommend on the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
    4. IVThe Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of India is the Ministry of Law and Justice.

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41. Q41

    Consider the following statements with regard to India's Foreign Policy :

    1. IIndia's Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative but had later extended into political, strategic and cultural dimensions.
    2. IIThe 'Connect Central Asia Policy' has been taken forward with the institutionalization of the 'India-Central Asia Summit' mechanism.
    3. IIIUnder the 'Security and Growth for All in the Region' (SAGAR) Policy, the DRDO initiated the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) for the purpose of establishing long-term collaboration with countries in the East Asian region.
    4. IVIndia's Think West Policy is an outreach to the Western Industrialized nations for strengthening of relations in areas of education and defence.

    Which of the above statements are valid ?

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42. Q42

    Which of the following statement/statements can best describe the nature of security concerns/developments for India ?

    1. IThe development of the Hambantota Development Zone can be seen or viewed as a policy of containment funded by Pakistan.
    2. IIIndia's support in building the Chabahar port in Iran may serve as a strategic act to balance the Chinese-funded Gwadar port in Yemen.
    3. IIIIndian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an extension of the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) and serves as a platform for maritime security.
    4. IVThe Malabar Exercise is connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD).

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43. Q43

    In the context of Central Government programmes, which one of following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?

    1. IThe objective of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is aimed at reducing poverty of the ST communities by generating additional employment opportunities.
    2. IIUnder the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana (PM-SYM), monthly contribution is payable by the beneficiary, the State Government and the Central Government.
    3. IIIUnder the 'FutureSkills Prime' Programme, Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the key implementing agency.
    4. IVMission Karmayogi comprises of eight key pillars that are intended to create functional and behavioural competencies among the civil servants. Select the answer using the codes given below :

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44. Q44

    In the context of the enactment of Budget, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. IThe Appropriation Bill carries an automatic repeal clause.
    2. IIThe provision 'Vote on Account' has become ineffectual after the re-scheduling of the budget cycle from the last day of February to the first day of February.
    3. IIIAmendments to either reject or reduce a tax can not be moved in case of the Finance Bill.
    4. IVThe expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India can only be discussed.

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45. Q45

    In connection with the veto power of the Indian President, which one of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. IThe Indian President possesses 'Suspensive Veto' in the case of Money Bills but not in the case of Finance Bills.
    2. IIThe Indian President can exercise 'Absolute Veto' with respect to the Government Bills at all times.
    3. IIIThe Indian President enjoys 'Pocket Veto' indefinitely whereas the American President possesses 'Qualified Veto'.
    4. IVThe objective of the veto power in being conferred upon the Indian President is to ensure a system of checks and balances between the office of the President and that of the power of the Parliament.

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46. Q46

    With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :

    1. IIt was intended to protect Central and State laws that are included in it from judicial review on the ground of violation of Fundamental rights.
    2. IIThe entries included in it are not restricted to the subject of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system alone.
    3. IIIArticle 31B carries a retrospective effect but it has ceased to be operative after the 'I.R. Coelho Case' (2007).
    4. IVThe entries incorporated in it are only done so, by the power of the Central Government.

    Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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47. Q47

    The 'Territory of India' and the 'Union of India' are two distinct and different expressions due to which of the following reason/reasons ?

    1. IThe 'Union of India' includes just States and Union Territories while the 'Territory of India' includes in addition to States and Union Territories, those territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time as well.
    2. IIThe expression 'Union of India' is mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the expression 'Territory of India' is not found in the Constitution of India.
    3. IIIThe First Schedule of the Constitution of India is with reference to just the 'Union of India' but not the 'Territory of India'.
    4. IVThe Union Territories are covered by the expression 'Territory of India' and not by the expression 'Union of India'.

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48. Q48

    With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements would you accept as appropriate ideas referring to 'Equality' ?

    1. IThe primacy of equality is safeguarded, defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than by the Constitution as conceptualized by A.V. Dicey.
    2. IIArticle 14 of the Constitution of India constitutes only the concept of 'Equality before the law' but does not mention the concept of 'Equal Protection of Laws'.
    3. IIIArticle 194 and Article 361A of the Constitution of India are indicative of the fact that equality in India is not absolute.
    4. IVThe theory of equality includes distinction of merit but not distinction on account of hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by the Balaji Raghavan Case (1995).

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49. Q49

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties ?

    1. IFundamental Duties are confined to just the citizens of India with the exception of Article 51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners that are resident in India.
    2. IIThe Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended the implementation of the Fundamental Duties irrespective of the existence of legal provisions.
    3. IIIIn 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the constitutionality of laws that are otherwise ambiguous to interpret.
    4. IVThe Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had recommended for penalties to be considered in the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the Fundamental Duties.

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50. Q50

    With regards to Directive Principles of State Policy, what is the correct chronological order in which the following additions/changes were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments ?

    1. IThe adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38.
    2. IIThe changing of the subject-matter of Article 45.
    3. IIIThe adding of Article 43B.
    4. IVThe adding of Article 48A.

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51. Q51

    Consider the following statements :

    1. IThe 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first provision was declared as invalid by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973).
    2. IIThe Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) considered the extension of the scope of the second provision of Article 31C as invalid as well.
    3. IIIThe Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills Case (1980) has considered the importance of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
    4. IVThe present interpretation with respect to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the same reiteration of the principle that was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Chamapakan Dorairajan case (1951).

    Which of the above statement/statements given above is/are incorrect ?

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52. Q52

    With reference to the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements :

    1. IA private member of the House of the Parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the Constitution only after the prior permission of the President.
    2. IIArticle 368 of the Constitution of India provides for three types of amendments - simple majority, special majority and ratification of half of the States by a simple majority.
    3. IIIFor amendments that require ratification of half the States by a simple majority, it is not necessary that all the State Legislatures must take action on the Bill.
    4. IVThe State Legislatures can pass a resolution requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368 in the same manner, as it could be done for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States.

    Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct ?

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53. Q53

    Consider the following statements about the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution :

    1. IThe doctrine of the 'Basic Structure' has been incorporated into the Constitution of India by an Act of Parliament.
    2. IIPresently, the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.
    3. IIIParliament's limited power to amend the Constitution is also an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.
    4. IVThe Supreme Court in the 'Kumar Padma Prasad Case' (1992) has declared that the mandate to build a 'welfare state' is an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

    Which of the statements given above are correct ?

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54. Q54

    Which of the following statement is correct regarding Parliamentary Privileges ?

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55. Q55

    The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha can be described by which of the following statement/statements ?

    1. IIntroduction and passage of Money Bills.
    2. IIConsideration of the CAG's report.
    3. IIIInitiating the removal of the Vice-President.
    4. IVApproval of proclamation of all the three types of emergencies by the President.

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56. Q56

    Which of the following source/sources of revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the Panchayats ?

    1. IThe tax proceeds that are assigned to the States from the Centre may be again re-distributed to the Panchayats as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.
    2. IILoans from the State Government.
    3. IIIUnder Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the State Government is empowered to devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in the absence of the State Finance Commission's recommendations.
    4. IVInternal Resource Generation is facilitated only in the case of Panchayats situated in Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule.

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57. Q57

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A)In connection with their own resource collection, the Panchayats at the village level are better placed than the Panchayats at the Intermediate and the District levels.

    Reason (R)The Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to depend only on tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for internal resource generation. Code :

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58. Q58

    In connection with the lapsing of Bills, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. IIf the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but if the Bill has still not been discussed in the Rajya Sabha, then such a Bill does not lapse.
    2. IIA Bill returned by the President for reconsideration of the Houses will not lapse. However, the Lok Sabha should not have been dissolved by the time the Bill is returned.
    3. IIIA Bill that is passed by both the Houses but pending for President's assent will not lapse.
    4. IVA Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha but which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha will also lapse.

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59. Q59

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Law Commission of India ?

    1. IIt is a non-constitutional quasi judicial body.
    2. IIOne of its functions is to communicate its opinion to the President on subjects relating to legal administration.
    3. IIIIts reports are not submitted to the Parliament.
    4. IVIt has no suo motu decision power to undertake research by itself. Select the answer using the codes given below :

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60. Q60

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution ?

    1. IThe term 'democratic' as used in the Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism.
    2. IIThe term 'Republic' in the Preamble indicates that India has an elected head, called the Prime Minister.
    3. IIIThe 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble is neither absolute nor qualified.
    4. IVThe term 'Fraternity' as used by the Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the individual only.

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61. Q61

    In recent times, many leading agencies have reaffirmed high growth for the Indian Economy. Which of the following statement/statements can be the best reason/reasons for India's projected high growth ?

    1. IStrong Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE)
    2. IIGovernment's shift of focus from large capital expenditure towards private investment
    3. IIIIncrease in domestic air passenger traffic along with a reduction in the volume of Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG)
    4. IVFading of the El Nino oscillation and better Rabi crop prospects

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62. Q62

    With regard to the progress of Digital Payments in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. IPromotion of Digital Payments has been transferred from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to the Department of Financial Services.
    2. IIe-RUPI is an institution-based voucher management system instead of being person and purpose specific.
    3. III'Hello! UPI' is an AI voice-enabled payment feature built by a consortium of private sponsored startups recognised by the NPCI.
    4. IV'UPI LITE X' addresses challenges of remote areas by enabling offline UPI payments.

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63. Q63

    Tourism in India has turned out to be a key service sub-sector. Which of the following statements are valid regarding the Tourism sector in India ?

    1. INIDHI is a technology-driven system meant for providing services to Hospitality and Travel industry.
    2. IIThe Government has resolved to make India a one trillion USD tourism economy by 2047 with 100 million international investors.
    3. IIIThe Hotel Occupancy Rate has been rapidly increasing alongside a consistent rise in the average daily rate and revenue per available room.
    4. IVIndia's Services Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) has been in the expanding zone.

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64. Q64

    The Interim Union Budget (FY25) has proposed initiatives to boost India's Green Energy Sector. Which of the following proposals are connected with developing India's Green Energy ?

    1. IViability Gap Funding (VGF) for utilizing solar energy projects
    2. IITo set up coal gasification and liquefaction capacity of 100MT by 2030
    3. IIIOptional blending of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) in Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for transport and Piped Natural Gas (PNG) for domestic purposes
    4. IVProvision of financial assistance for procurement of biomass aggregation machinery V. Setting up of a payment security system for expanding the bio-manufacturing system in the country

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65. Q65

    Which of the following statement can best be described as having resulted in the recovery of India's external sector ?

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66. Q66

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A)Tax reforms directed towards a simple tax system will result in positive productivity gains.

    Reason (R)They boost GDP growth and employment growth by removing deadweight costs and reduce distortions in resource allocation. Code :

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67. Q67

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) ?

    1. INIP includes only economic infrastructure projects but not social infrastructure projects.
    2. IINIP is aimed to focus on key greenfield projects alone. Brownfield projects are excluded from the NIP's coverage.
    3. IIINIP aims to offer investment opportunities in India's infrastructure sector, and to attract investments into India.
    4. IVIndia Investment Grid (IIG) as a platform has ceased to facilitate the NIP and instead 'Invest India' is presently facilitating NIP.

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68. Q68

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A)Majority of the reported transactions on e-NAM are intra-mandi instead of inter-mandi and inter-state.

    Reason (R)The Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017 provides for progressive agricultural marketing reforms that include greater focus on intra-mandi transactions. Code :

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69. Q69

    The strategic objective of Asset Monetization Programme may be explained as :

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70. Q70

    In connection with SEBI, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. ISEBI exempted regulations for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Muncipal Bonds in order to facilitate more efficient infrastructure financing through the capital markets.
    2. IISEBI introduced the framework in which listed large corporates will mandatorily meet 25% of their financing requirements through the issuance of debt securities.
    3. IIISEBI increased the minimum ticket size of corporate bond investment in order to encourage investor responsibility.
    4. IVSEBI along with the RBI introduced the Retail Direct Scheme.

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71. Q71

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A)'India Stack' has enabled an online, paperless and cashless digital access to various public and private services. This has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC.

    Reason (R)India Stack consists of two interconnected layers, and of these, the 'Payment Layer' has reduced the cost of conducting e-KYC. Code :

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72. Q72

    Pick the correct sequence out of the following sequences with regard to the present prevailing inflation trends (in percentages) in India :

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73. Q73

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with inflation ?

    1. ICost-push inflation cycle of milk is becoming more and more pronounced in India.
    2. IIThe Bharat Atta initiative of the Government has played a considerable role in containing wheat inflation in India.
    3. IIIRetail Inflation has considerably increased in the beginning of 2024 owing to increasing commodity prices.
    4. IVThe Bharat Dal initiative has also been extended to include moong dal.

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74. Q74

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) Reforms ?

    1. IEASE Reforms are governed by a board of directors, who are heads of premier Financial Institutions in India.
    2. IIEASE Next programme had just one (01) priority - the Common Reforms Agenda.
    3. IIIDelivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement is one of the four themes conceptualized as part of EASE 6.0.
    4. IVEASE Reforms are intended for both Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as well as NBFCs.

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75. Q75

    Which of the following feature/features is/are correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme ?

    1. IThis scheme covers brownfield enterprises along with greenfield enterprises.
    2. IINon-Individual enterprises are also eligible to avail the benefit of this scheme provided certain conditions are complied with.
    3. IIIFor drawal of Working Capital up to Rs. 10 lakh, the same may be sanctioned by way of Cash Credit Limit.
    4. IVBesides Primary Security, the loan may be secured by a guarantee of Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand-Up India Loans (CGFSIL) as decided by the banks.

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76. Q76

    Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) :

    1. IThe Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been publishing the RBI-DPI with 2021 as the base year to capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.
    2. IIThe RBI-DPI consists of 6 broad parameters that have in turn sub-parameters.
    3. IIIThere has been a constant increase in the RBI-DPI since the time of its inception.
    4. IV'Consumer Centricity' is one of the parameters in the RBI-DPI.

    Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

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77. Q77

    Which of the following statement/statements qualifies/qualify as valid in connection with the banking mechanism in India ?

    1. IIncreasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) will result in increasing credit creation.
    2. IICash Reserve Ratio (CRR) applies only to the new deposit base while the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) specifically targets the new borrower lending base.
    3. III'Tenor Premium' is an important component in the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR).
    4. IVMarginal Standing Facility (MSF) is used as a long-term policy rate and is generally lower than the Bank Rate.

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78. Q78

    In the context of India's fight against poverty, consider the following statements :

    1. IUnlike the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by NITI Aayog does not make use of 'Alkire-Foster' (AF) methodology.
    2. IIThe urban population witnessed a larger decline in poverty as compared to the rural population.
    3. IIIPradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) includes the coverage of food grain entitlements.
    4. IVThe Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is computed by adding the incidence of multidimensional poverty and the intensity of poverty.

    Which of the above statement/statements is/are valid ?

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79. Q79

    In connection with the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF), which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. IThe fund will be established through reserved bonds taken from the G-Sec market.
    2. IIThe fund is to be exclusively availed by private agencies to create urban infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
    3. IIIEligible activities for UIDF shall be connected to the Missions and Programmes of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
    4. IVThe fund will be collectively managed by a cluster of Municipal Cooperative Banks.

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80. Q80

    With regard to the Startup Ecosystem in India, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. INational Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) Centre will not be presiding over the selection process of the applications that are received under Startup Agri-Business Incubation Programme.
    2. IIMentorship, Advisory, Assistance, Resilience and Growth (MAARG) Portal is an exclusive one-stop platform intended for guiding startups in the emerging Aritificial Intelligence (AI) sector only.
    3. IIIStartup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) aims to provide financial assistance to startups for conducting 'proof of concept' trials.
    4. IVFund of Funds Scheme (FFS) for Startups is meant to contribute to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with the SEBI.

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81. Q81

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A)The National Product measures all goods and services that arise out of economic activity, whereas National Income is the sum of all incomes as a result of the economic activity. These two are synonymous.

    Reason (R)The Production of goods and services is the outcome of the use of capital and labour, along with the raw materials, and this automatically generates income. Code :

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82. Q82

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the prevailing scenarios and issues in connection with the World Trade Organisation (WTO) ?

    1. IThe 'Peace Clause' under the Bali Agreement reiterates that developing nations must not exceed the 10% ceiling limit for Public Stockholding schemes initiatives.
    2. IIThe 'Green Box' prohibits the use of direct payments to producers which are not linked to production decisions.
    3. IIIThe 'Reduction Commitments' are expressed in terms of a "Total Aggregate Measurement of Support" which includes all product-specific support and non-product-specific support in one single figure.
    4. IVAny support that would normally be placed in the 'Amber Box', is not to be placed in the 'Blue Box' even if the support mandates farmers to limit production.

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83. Q83

    Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code :

    Assertion (A)Coal washing results in increased generation efficiency and reduced investment costs. However, the use of washed coal in India is still limited.

    Reason (R)The limited establishment of coal washeries may be attributed to the perception that coal washing by increasing the cost of electricity generation, would adversely impact the plants in terms of 'merit order' scheduling. Code :

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84. Q84

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid in connection with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ?

    1. IAchieving Goal 10 will require an entire reform of the financial system that promotes equitable pay and decent work for young people.
    2. IINITI Aayog has developed the National Indicator Framework (NIF) for facilitating monitoring of SDGs in India.
    3. III'Mission LiFE' aims to influence government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production.
    4. IVThe concept of global citizenship embedded in Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) is a reference term that indicates flexible citizenship rights across countries for the purpose of facilitating better labour markets.

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85. Q85

    Which of the following statements are valid regarding Human Development ?

    1. ITwo countries with the same level of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, but ending with different human development outcomes is indicative of the importance of growth over development.
    2. IIA country's score on the Inequality-Adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is not the same as its Human Development Index (HDI) even when there is no inequality among people.
    3. IIIIn Gender Development Index (GDI), values below 1 indicate higher development for women than men.
    4. IVPlanetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) focuses on intergenerational inequality just the same way, as the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) focuses on intragenerational inequality. V. According to the Human Development Report 2021 - 22, a new uncertainty complex is emerging, which comprises of three new concerns - planetary changes, sweeping social transformations and polarized societies.

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86. Q86

    Which of the following statements are valid regarding the interventions of the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the context of Healthcare ?

    1. ITelemedicine facility is available in all Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) to avail specialist services through district hub.
    2. IIThe Family Doctor Programme has been planned to be implemented as a standalone project without the need to be integrated with Primary Health Centres (PHCs).
    3. IIIDr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme has been revamped, by increasing the income limit from Rs. 2.5 lakh to Rs. 5 lakh per annum per family.
    4. IV'Aarogya Aasara' Scheme is intended to provide post-operative sustenance allowance with certain eligible conditions complied with.

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87. Q87

    In connection with transport and infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh, which of the following statement/statements is/are valid ?

    1. IAndhra Pradesh's first riverine project has been proposed between Muktyala and Madipadu on Krishna river.
    2. IIThe Bhogapuram Greenfield International Airport had been started with a corpus fund that is sourced from National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF).
    3. IIIInfrastructure investments in Andhra Pradesh are strictly implemented only with reference to strategic investments like ports and industrial corridors, but not with reference to community assets.
    4. IVRail Over Bridges (ROBs) are being developed in Andhra Pradesh under the Setu Bandhan Scheme.

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88. Q88

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect regarding the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Policy 2023 - 27 ?

    1. ITo achieve a minimum contribution of 25% by industry in the State GDP
    2. IITo provide end-to-end facilitation in 2 weeks
    3. IIITo envisage ten (10) priorities of accomplishment
    4. IVTo focus on becoming a 'Plug and Play State' for investments V. Ensuring land allotment by APIIC within a period of 2 weeks upon receipt of application Select the answer using the codes given below :

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89. Q89

    Which of the following statements are valid in connection with Andhra Pradesh Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia Policy (2023) ?

    1. IThe objective is to target Green Energy production up to the capacity of 1 MPTA (Million Tonnes Per Annum) or Green Ammonia production up to the capacity of 2.0 MTPA in the next five years.
    2. IINew and Renewable Energy Development Corporation of A.P. Ltd (NREDCAP) shall act as a Nodal Agency under this policy.
    3. IIIAll the Ports in the State have infrastructure for storing liquid nitrogen which can then be utilized for storing Green Hydrogen for exporting to other countries.
    4. IVThe Policy prohibits the production of Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia by using Renewable Energy and/or Biomass from 'Third-Party/Power exchange'.

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90. Q90

    Which of the following statement/statements is/are valid regarding the socio-economic status of Andhra Pradesh ?

    1. IAndhra Pradesh won the Best State Award of ICAR - National Research Center for Banana (NRCB) for export promotion.
    2. IIAndhra Pradesh GSDP growth rate has been registering a decline in recent times owing to repeated lower returns in certain sub-sectors of the Service Sector.
    3. IIIFor the FY 2024 - 25, the Revenue Deficit is budgeted higher than the Fiscal Deficit in terms of percentage of Andhra Pradesh GSDP.
    4. IVThe technology used by the Government of Andhra Pradesh while conducting resurvey of landholdings is referred to as 'Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS)' technology.

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91. Q91

    Following are the intrusive landforms of volcanic activity and their characteristic features :

    BatholithsHuge mass of igneous rocks, usually granite at the deeper layers of the crust.

    PhacolithsLarge igneous mounds with a dome-shaped upper surface.

    DykesWall-like structures developed by solidifying almost perpendicular to the ground.

    SillsThe near horizontal bodies of intrusive igneous rocks.

    Which of the above are correctly matched ?

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92. Q92

    Consider the following statements :

    1. ISilicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety.
    2. IIAlmost one-fourth of the Earth's crust is composed of feldspar and quartz.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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93. Q93

    Identify the incorrect statement :

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94. Q94

    Soil formation is controlled by the following factors :

    1. IParent material
    2. IITopography
    3. IIIClimate
    4. IVBiological activity V. Time

    Which of the above are active factors ?

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95. Q95

    Match the following : List-I (Clouds): A. Cirrus, B. Cirrostratus, C. Cirrocumulus, D. Cumulus List-II (Description):

    1. IMilky appearance,
    2. IISilky appearance,
    3. IIICauliflower structure,
    4. IVSmall globular masses Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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96. Q96

    Consider the following statements :

    1. IDoldrums are the strong winds that have rapid surface movement.
    2. IIThe prevailing trade wind direction in northern hemisphere is northwest.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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97. Q97

    Identify the incorrect statement on extra-tropical cyclones :

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98. Q98

    Consider the following :

    1. IDry winter season
    2. IINo dry season
    3. IIIDry hot summer
    4. IVDry and very severe winter

    Which of the above are not the characteristic features of Mediterranean Climate ?

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99. Q99

    Guyot is :

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100. Q100

     Consider the following statements :

     1. IIn general, the terrigenous deposits are derived from the land and are mainly deposited on the continental shelves.
     2. IIFrom the shore onwards, there is a gradual increase in the coarseness of the terrigenous deposits.
     3. IIIThe muds, the finest materials, are the terrigenous deposits.
     4. IVThe colouring of the muds depends upon their chemical content.

     Which of the above statements are correct ?

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101. Q101

     Consider the following statements :

     1. IThe Great Rift Valley in East Africa forms a series of lakes.
     2. IIMost of these lakes are fresh water lakes.
     3. IIILake Malawi is at the southern end in the Rift Valley.
     4. IVLake Victoria, the largest one, is a part of the Rift Valley.

     Which of the above statements are correct ?

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102. Q102

     Consider the following countries :

     1. IChile
     2. IIVenezuela
     3. IIIEcuador
     4. IVPeru V. Colombia

     Which of the above South American countries have a Pacific coastline ?

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103. Q103

     Identify the incorrect statement :

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104. Q104

     Which of the following statements regarding Himalayas are correct ?

     1. IHimalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains.
     2. IIThey are wide in Kashmir and narrow in the North-eastern states.
     3. IIIThe folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature and their core is composed of granite.
     4. IVThe longitudinal valleys lying between Greater and Lesser Himalayas are known as Duns.

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105. Q105

     Match the following Climatic regions of India according to Koeppen's scheme : List-I (Type of Climate): A. Monsoon with short dry season, B. Monsoon with dry summer, C. Monsoon with dry winter, D. Semi-arid Steppe climate List-II (Areas):

     1. IWest coast of India, south of Goa,
     2. IICoromandel coast of Tamil Nadu,
     3. IIIMost of North-East India,
     4. IVNorthwestern Gujarat Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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106. Q106

     Within India, Ganga river basin has the largest catchment area. After that, following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order :

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107. Q107

     Peaty soils are one of the major soils of India. These are found in :

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108. Q108

     In India, Sholas are :

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109. Q109

     In Andhra Pradesh, Dharwar types of rocks are found in :

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110. Q110

     Match the following : List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh): A. Coringa, B. Gundla Brahmeswaram, C. Rollapadu, D. Sri Lankamalleswara List-II (Endangered Species):

     1. IGreat Indian Bustard,
     2. IIJerdon's Courser,
     3. IIISaltwater Crocodile,
     4. IVTiger Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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111. Q111

     Match the following : List-I (Hunters/Nomadic tribes): A. Pygmies, B. Masai, C. Semangs, D. Punan List-II (Region):

     1. IEast Africa,
     2. IICongo basin,
     3. IIIBorneo,
     4. IVMalaysia Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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112. Q112

     Identify the incorrect statement on the linguistic diversity of India :

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113. Q113

     Match the following : List-I (Slash and burn agriculture): A. Ladang, B. Milpa, C. Roca, D. Masole List-II (Practising region):

     1. ICentral America,
     2. IIIndonesia,
     3. IIICentral Africa,
     4. IVBrazil Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

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114. Q114

     Following are the regions of Iron and Steel industry in the world :

     The Atlantic coast regionThe United States

     The Ural regionRussia

     The Ruhr regionEastern Europe

     The North-eastern and Central partsThe United Kingdom

     Which of the above are correctly matched ?

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115. Q115

     Trans-Siberian Railway runs between the stations in Russia from :

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116. Q116

     Consider the following states of India :

     1. IPunjab
     2. IIOdisha
     3. IIIHaryana
     4. IVTamil Nadu

     Which of the above states have relatively high level of groundwater utilization ?

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117. Q117

     Identify the incorrect statement on Wheat crop cultivation in India :

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118. Q118

     Consider the following oil fields of India :

     1. IDigboi
     2. IIMoran
     3. IIIKalol
     4. IVNaharkatiya

     Which of the above oil fields are located in Assam ?

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119. Q119

     In India, most of the jute mills are located in :

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120. Q120

     Consider the following erstwhile districts of Andhra Pradesh :

     1. IWest Godavari
     2. IIEast Godavari
     3. IIIVisakhapatnam
     4. IVSrikakulam In which of the above districts are coffee plantations mainly existing in their agency areas ?

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